Take Assessment – ESwitching Final Exam – CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0)

November 5, 2010

Take Assessment – ESwitching Final Exam – CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0)
November 02, 2010

1

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator documented the output of a CAM table from an Ethernet switch as shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?

discard the frame

forward the frame out port 2

forward the frame out port 3

forward the frame out all ports

forward the frame out all ports except port 3

add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to port 2 in the forwarding table

2

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator issues the commands as shown on SwitchB. What is the result for port Fa0/22?

The port is disabled.

Security is enabled on the port.

The port becomes a trunk port.

The port is now a member of the default VLAN.

3
What is one reason that SSID cloaking is not considered an effective security measure for a wireless network?

The SSID is not required to connect to a wireless network.

The SSID is broadcast in probe messages from clients that are looking for the AP.

The SSID is the same as the AP MAC address, which is sent in every message.

An attacker can spoof the SSID simply by using an SSID of NULL in all messages.

4

Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host?

192.168.1.11 /28

192.168.1.22 /28

192.168.1.33 /28

192.168.1.44 /28

192.168.1.55 /28

5
While configuring a new switch, a network administrator configures the switch as an HTTP server. What benefits does this configuration provide?

This allows the switch to host web pages for the network.

This allows remote VPN connections to the switch over the Internet.

This is required if a web server or web farm is attached to the switch.

This allows web-based configuration tools to be used with the switch.

6

Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?

QoS

routing

trunking

VPN

7

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has designed and implemented a hierarchical network. What is the maximum network diameter between any two hosts on the network?

five

six

ten

twelve

8

A wireless client is attempting to establish a connection with a wireless access point. What process does the client use to discover the access points which are available to it?

probing

beaconing

association

authentication

9
What is the benefit of the auto-MDIX feature on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

dynamically assigns a new management VLAN ID

autonegotiates IP address information for initial management connections

allows the use of straight-through patch cables regardless of connected device types

places a port immediately in the forwarding state to reduce the time for the spanning tree to reconverge

10

Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?

The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.

The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.

The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.

The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish a trunk.

11

Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?

Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.

Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.

Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.

Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.

12
What is the purpose of the switch command switchport access vlan 99?

to enable port security

to make the port operational

to assign the port to a particular VLAN

to designate the VLAN that does not get tagged

to assign the port to the native VLAN (VLAN 99)

13

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)

Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.

Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.

Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.

Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.

Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.

14

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to download a previously saved configuration file from the TFTP server to Switch1. Which command will accomplish this task?

Switch1# copy tftp://192.168.0.253/backup-confg nvram:startup-config

Switch1# copy tftp://192.168.0.254/backup-confg nvram:startup-config

Switch1# copy nvram:startup-config tftp://192.168.0.253/backup-config

Switch1# copy nvram:startup-config tftp://192.168.0.254/backup-config

15
What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?

A new RSA key pair is created.

The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.

The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.

The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.

Take Assessment – ESwitching Final Exam – CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0)
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16
Which statement about STP network diameter is correct?

STP diameters are restricted by convergence times.

Layer 2 root elections should be optimized by adjusting BPDU timers to match network diameter.

Using lower bandwidth connections between switches will allow STP to have a larger network diameter.

Portfast can be used to increase the allowable switched network diameter because it disables the forward delay and maximum age timers.

17
In the implementation of PVST+ in a specific VLAN where all switches have default spanning tree priorities, which spanning-tree command setting could be assigned to force one of the Catalyst switches to become and remain the root bridge?

root primary

priority 8192

priority 2048

spanning-tree mode rapid pvst

18

Refer to the exhibit. A new switch, SW3, has been added to the network. The network administrator determines that VLAN information is not propagating to SW3. Which command will remedy the problem?

SW1(config)# vtp version 1

SW2(config)# vtp mode client

SW3(config)# vtp domain Cisco1

SW3(config)# vtp mode transparent

19
In an attempt to improve switch performance, a network administrator changes the MAC aging time to ten seconds. What is a likely result of this decision?

The MAC table will fill with unused addresses.

Address conflicts will cause retransmission errors.

Unnecessary flooding will slow network performance.

Timely MAC address updates will ensure rapid delivery of frames.

20
What is an efficient and cost effective way to minimize the frequency and effects of broadcast storms on an Ethernet LAN?

Connect each PC directly to a router port.

Use access control lists to filter broadcasts from the network.

Divide the computers into separate VLANs on the existing switches.

Divide the computers into separate workgroups using different physical switches.

21
Which value determines if a switch becomes the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology?

lowest bridge ID

highest revision number

lowest numeric IP address

highest numeric MAC address

22

Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of VLANs that can be deleted from the Switch as it is configured?

zero

four

five

eight

nine

23

Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?

All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.

SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.

VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1.

The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.

24

Refer to the exhibit. All edge ports are configured with the spanning-tree portfast command. Host1 is recently connected to port Fa0/1 on switch SW1 . Which statement is true about the status of port Fa0/1?

The port will transition into blocking state.

The port will transition immediately into forwarding state.

The port will transition into blocking state and then immediately into forwarding state.

The port will transition into blocking state and immediately transition through the listening and learning states.

25

Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown?

This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator.

When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.

Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18.


The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18.

26
Which type of traffic can still be received on a switch interface that is in STP blocking mode?

BPDU frames

multicast frames

broadcast frames

Layer 3 packets

27

Refer to the exhibit. Hosts B and C attempt to transmit a frame at the same time, but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?

all hosts that are shown

only hosts B and C

only hosts A, B, and C

only hosts A, B, C, and D

only hosts A, D, E, and F

only hosts D, E, and F

28
Which security protocol or measure would provide the greatest protection for a wireless LAN?

WPA2

cloaking SSIDs

shared WEP key

MAC address filtering

29

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the status of interface Fa0/1?

The interface is not configured to transmit data.

The interface is configured to transmit data at 10 Mb/s speed.

The interface is configured to transmit data in half-duplex mode.

The interface is configured to use HDLC encapsulation to transmit data.

30
What is the purpose of configuring a switch port as a trunk port?

to control the broadcast domain size

to eliminate the collisions that result from multiple VLANs

to transmit data from multiple VLANs through a single port

to increase the bandwidth between the switch and its upstream device

31
In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?

client

root

server

transparent

32
When implementing a router-on-a-stick, what must be configured on the router to ensure connectivity between different VLANs?

subinterfaces

routing protocol

switched virtual circuits

dynamic trunking protocol

33

Refer to the exhibit. VTP pruning is enabled in the VTP domain that is shown. How will switch ST-1 handle Layer 2 broadcast traffic originating from host A on switch ST-C?

It will be dropped.

It will be forwarded out port Fa0/5 only.

It will be forwarded out ports Fa0/5 and Fa0/10.

It will be forwarded out ports Fa0/5, Fa0/10, and Fa0/15.

34

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to add IP phones to the network. To which devices should the IP phones connect?

AS1 and AS2

DS1 and DS2

DS1, DS2, and CS1

AS1, AS2, DS1, and DS2

35

Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?

switch A

switch B

switch C

switch D

switch E

switch F

36
Why is MAC address filtering considered a poor choice in securing a WLAN?

Available bandwidth is reduced.


MAC addresses are easily spoofed.

APs are more susceptible to DoS attacks.

The payload encryption is easily broken.

37

Refer to the exhibit. What are two reasons for the Fa0/24 port being placed in the blocking state? (Choose two.)

This switch is not the root bridge.

The Fa0/24 port is administratively down.

STP has detected links that create a loop.

There is a change in the VTP configuration.

The Fa0/24 port is overloaded with too much traffic for its configured bandwidth.

38

Refer to the exhibit. Which two settings show the default value of VTP configuration on a Cisco 2960 switch? (Choose two.)

revision number

existing VLANs

operating mode

domain name

pruning mode

39
Company policy requires disabling the command history buffer on network devices. An administrator enters terminal no history size at the command prompt on a Cisco Catalyst switch and receives no error messages back, but the command history buffer is still available. What is the problem?

The command contained a syntax error.

The Cisco IOS version does not support disabling the command history buffer.

The command history can only be disabled on a router, not a switch.

The size parameter reset the default buffer size but did not disable access to the buffer.

40

Refer to the exhibit. Which Spanning Tree Protocol version is in effect?

Per VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST)

Per VLAN Spanning Tree + (PVST+)

Common Spanning Tree (CST)

Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)

Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)

41

Refer to the exhibit. All switch interfaces are members of the same VLAN. What information is used by Switch1 to determine if incoming frames from the hosts should be forwarded to Router1?

the source address field in the IP header

the destination port number in the TCP header

the destination address field in the Layer 3 header

the destination address field in the Ethernet header

42

Refer to the exhibit. The configuration steps that are listed in the exhibit have been entered in switch S1 via the console. Subsequent attempts to telnet to the switch are not successful. What is causing the problem?

The switch must be configured with SSH version 1.

The transport input command must specify Telnet access.

The RSA keys must be returned to zero before SSH will permit Telnet access.

The ip domain-name command must also be entered in line configuration mode for the vty lines.

43
What provides an authentication mechanism for 802.11-based wireless networks?

DSSS

OFDM

SSID

WPA

44
How does a switch that is configured for 802.1Q trunking handle untagged frames that are received on a trunk port?

The frames are dropped.

The frames are assigned to the native VLAN.

The frames are assigned to the default VLAN.

The frames are assigned to the management VLAN.

45
Why is it advisable that a network administrator use SSH instead of Telnet when managing switches?

SSH uses TCP whereas Telnet does not.

SSH encrypts only the username and password when logging in.

SSH encrypts all remote management communications whereas Telnet does not.

SSH sends a clear text message steam which reduces the bandwidth use for management.

46
What are two requirements for configuring inter-VLAN routing using the router-on-a-stick model? (Choose two.)

Each subinterface should be configured with its own IP address, subnet mask, and unique VLAN assignment.

The physical interface of the router must be connected to a trunk link on the adjacent switch.

The number of physical interfaces on the router should match the number of VLANs.

Different static VLANs should be assigned to different interfaces of the router.

The router should be configured as the VTP server.

47

Refer to the exhibit. Users A and B are reporting intermittent connectivity problems. Pre-installation surveys showed strong signal strength from the AP locations to the client locations. Outside electrical interference has been eliminated. What will fix the problem?

Relocate the APs closer to each other.

Increase the distance between the clients.

Change the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11.

Place AP-A and AP-B on the same wireless channel.

48
What is a function or characteristic of the native VLAN?

It is the VLAN that supports untagged traffic on an 802.1Q trunk.

It is always assigned to VLAN 1 for backward compatibility.

It is always the same VLAN number for all trunks within an organization.

It is used as the management VLAN throughout the entire switched network.

49

Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly describe the router configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)

An IEEE standard trunking protocol is in use.

Interface Fa0/1 has been configured with subinterfaces.

The shutdown command has been applied to interface Fa0/1.

Interface Fa0/1.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.

The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.

An IP address should be applied to interface Fa0/1 for routing to occur.

50

Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)

After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.

Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.

The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.

Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.

If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.

51
What is the purpose of VTP pruning?

to restrict traffic on specified trunk lines

to designate switches that do not participate in VTP

to advertise VTP domain information to specified switches only

to reduce the propagation of VTP advertisements in the switched network

52
What operational change will occur if an 802.11b client associates with an access point that is currently supporting clients utilizing 802.11g?

The 802.11g clients will disassociate from the AP.

The 802.11g clients will operate at reduced speeds.

The 802.11b client will never gain access to the channel.

The 802.11b client will not be able to establish an IP session with any of the other 802.11g clients.

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July 27, 2009
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Take Assessment – ERouting Practice Final Exam – CCNA Exploration: Routing Protocols and Concepts (Version 4.0)

1
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Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown, and all interfaces are functioning correctly. A ping from R1 to 172.16.1.1 fails. What could be the cause of this problem?

The serial interface on R1 is configured incorrectly.

The default route is configured incorrectly.

The default-information originate command must be issued on R1.

Autosummarization must be disabled on R1.

2
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Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?

The packet will be dropped.

The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.

The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0.

The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1.
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3
Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.)

the IP address of the first FastEthernet interface

the highest IP address of any logical interface

the highest IP address of any physical interface

the default gateway IP address

the priority value of 1 on any physical interface
4
What are two reasons for the occurrence of a routing loop? (Choose two.)

slow convergence

incorrectly configured static routes

routes that are learned via two routing protocols

static and dynamic routing being used on the same router

lack of a default route on the router that connects to the Internet

5
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The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?

The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that subnetwork.

The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.

The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the address for Serial0 of Router2.

The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
6
Photobucket
Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the highlighted output?

R1 is originating the route 172.30.200.32/28.

Automatic summarization is disabled.

The 172.30.200.16/28 network is one hop away from R1.

A classful routing protocol is being used.
7
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Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?

Router1

Router2

Router3

Router4
8
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Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is configured properly and all interfaces are functional. Router R1 has been installed recently. Host A is unable to ping host B.

Which procedure can resolve this problem?

Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of the serial interface on R1.

Configure a default route on R1 with the exit interface Fa0/0 on R1.

Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of S0/0/0 on R2.

Configure a default route on R1 using the IP address of Fa0/0 on R2.
9
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Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?

172.16.0.0/8

172.16.0.0/10

172.16.0.0/13

172.16.0.0/20

172.16.0.0/24
10
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Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?

All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.

Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.

The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.

A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.
11
Which two statements are true about the startup configuration in a router? (Choose two.)

The router uses the startup configuration file to start POST.

If the Cisco IOS cannot be found, the router enters setup mode.

The bootstrap program searches for the startup configuration file in NVRAM.

If the startup config file cannot be found, the router enters ROMMON mode.

The router searches for a TFTP server if the startup configuration file is absent at the default location.
12
Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running the same routing protocol. Based on the exhibit and its displayed commands, which statement is true?

The wildcard mask is incorrectly configured.

A default route must be configured on every router.

Routers B, C, and D have no access to the Internet.

The link to the ISP is not advertised by the routing protocol process.

13
When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot system command?

ROM, TFTP server, flash

flash, TFTP server, ROM

flash, NVRAM, TFTP server

NVRAM, TFTP server, flash
14
Photobucket
Refer to the exhibit. Although both the routers can ping the serial interface of their neighbors, they are unable to ping the Ethernet interfaces of other routers. Which two statements are true for this network? (Choose two.)

The administrative distance has been set to 50 on both routers.

R2 is learning about network 192.168.1.0.

R1 is learning about network 192.168.2.0.

The network 10.1.1.0 command has not been run on both routers.

Autosummarization is enabled on both routers.
15
Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?

The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table.

The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in the routing table.

The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and installs only that route in the routing table.

The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one, holding the others in reserve in case the primary route goes down.

The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces.

Take Assessment – ERouting Practice Final Exam – CCNA Exploration: Routing Protocols and Concepts (Version 4.0)
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16
What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)

tests Layer 2 connectivity

provides a layer of security

operates a OSI layers 2 and 3

enabled by default on each interface

used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues

provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled

17
What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet?

It is used to confirm the receipt of LSUs.

It is used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers.

It is used by the receiving routers to request more information about any entry in the DBD.

It is used to check the database synchronization between routers.
18
What is the first step OSPF and IS-IS routers take in building a shortest path first database?

learn about directly connected networks

send hello to discover neighbors and form adjacencies

choose successors and feasible successors to populate the topology table

flood LSPs to all neighbors informing them of all known networks and their link states
19
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Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?

The default gateway is incorrect.

The address is in the wrong subnet.

The host address and default gateway are swapped.

192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet.
20
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Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.)

Router1 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network

Router1 is missing a route to the 192.168.1.0 network

Router2 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network

Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network

Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network

Router3 is missing a route to the 192.168.0.0 network
21
What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)

The routers must elect a designated router.

The routers must agree on the network type.

The routers must use the same dead interval.

The routers must exchange link state requests.

The routers must exchange database description packets.
22
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Refer to the exhibit. All routes are advertised and fully operational on all routers. Which statement is true about the path that the data will take from router A to router B?

If EIGRP is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between two paths — A, D, B and A, C, B.

If RIPv1 is used with default configurations, the data will be load-balanced on all paths.

If EIGRP and OSPF are both used with default configurations, the data will be sent through paths learned by the OSPF protocol.

If RIPv2 is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between two paths — A, D, B and A, C, D.
23
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Refer to the exhibit. A ping between host A and host B is successful, but pings from host A to operational hosts on the Internet fail. What is the reason for this problem?

The FastEthernet interface of R1 is disabled.

One of the default routes is configured incorrectly.

A routing protocol is not configured on both routers.

The default gateway has not been configured on host A.
24
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Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?

Router5 flushes the unreachable route from its routing table in 30 seconds.

Router4 will learn about the failed route 30 seconds later in the next periodic update.

Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.

Split horizon will prevent Router4 from fowarding packets to the 10.0.0.0 network until the holddown timer expires.
25
The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result?

IP classless has been disabled on the Suffolk router.

The ip subnet-zero command was not configured on the Suffolk router.

The Richmond router is in a different autonomous system than the Suffolk router.

The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates.
26
A network is using RIP as the routing protocol. The router learns that the same destination can be reached via five different paths. All paths have the same metric, and all routers are using the default operation.

Which statement correctly describes the path used by the router?

It will use the first available path to the destination.

It will use only the first two paths that it learned.

It will use four of the five paths.

It will load-balance using all five paths.
27
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Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIP protocol. Devices on the 192.168.1.1 network can ping the S0/0/0 interface on R2 but cannot ping devices on the 192.168.2.1 network.

What is a possible cause of this problem?

The routers are configured with different versions of RIP.

R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.

The R1 configuration should include the no auto-summary command.

The maximum path number has been exceeded.
28
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Refer to the exhibit. To implement the RIPv2 protocol, the network administrator runs the commands as displayed. However, the show ip protocol command fails to display any output. How can the administrator solve the problem that is indicated by the lack of output from this command?

Include the default-information originate command.

Include the no auto-summary command.

Specify the network for which RIP routing has to be enabled.

Implement RIPv2 authentication in the network.
29
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Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured correctly. The network administrator has configured R1 as shown. Which two facts are true about the forwarding of route information by R1? (Choose two.)

R1 will forward the route information for subnet 192.168.100.0/30.

R1 will not forward route information for subnet 192.168.100.4/30.

R1 will forward the route information with an administrative distance set to 50.

R1 will forward the summarized route information for network 192.168.100.0/24.

R1 will forward route information for subnet 10.10.10.0/30 out the serial interface.
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Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new subnet of 50 hosts to R3. Which subnet address should be used for the new subnet that provides enough addresses while wasting a minimum of addresses?

192.168.1.0/24

192.168.1.48 /28

192.168.1.32/27

192.168.1.64/26
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Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?

Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.

The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boundaries and should be summarized.

Packets routed to the R2 Fast Ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.

The static route will not work correctly.
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Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are configured with the correct IP addresses and subnet masks. OSPF has been configured as the routing protocol. During troubleshooting, it is determined that hosts on network B can ping the Lo0 interface on R1 but are unable to reach hosts on network A. What is the cause of the problem?

Routers R1 and R2 have incorrect router IDs configured.

Router R1 is unable to form a neighbor relationship with router R2.

Routers R1 and R2 have been configured in different OSPF areas.

The configuration of router R1 fails to include network A in the OSPF routing process.
33
A network administrator needs to configure a single router to load-balance the traffic over unequal cost paths. Which routing protocol should the administrator use?

EIGRP

OSPF

RIPv1

RIPv2
34
A network administrator has been asked to configure a network using a classful IP addressing scheme. Which statement is true about the IP addressing that will be used?

Classful IP addresses can be used only when static routing is configured in the network.

Classful IP addresses allow the network/host boundary to occur at any bit in the 32-bit address.

The subnet mask for classful IP addresses can be determined by the value of the first octet of the IP address.

Classful IP addresses require the subnet mask to be included in the routing updates that are propagated by the classful routing protocols.
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Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for router R1 is displayed. What action will the router take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.5?

It will drop the packet.

It will forward the packet to interface Serial0/0/0.

It will determine the route for the packet through a routing protocol.

It will forward the packet to the default gateway.
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Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29 and 10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access each other. What can be the cause of this problem?

Because RIPv1 is a classless protocol, it does not support this access.

RIPv1 does not support discontiguous networks.

RIPv1 does not support load balancing.

RIPv1 does not support automatic summarization.
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Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator successfully pings R1 from R3. Next, the administrator runs the show cdp neighbors command on R3. The output of this command is displayed.

What are two reasons for the absence of R1 in the output? (Choose two.)

There is a Layer 2 connectivity problem between R1 and R3.

The Fa0/0 interface of R1 is configured with an incorrect IP address.

The no cdp run command has been run at R1.

The no cdp enable command has been run at Fa0/1 interface of R3.

R1 is powered off.
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Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are child routes?

1

3

4

6
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Refer to the exhibit. The routers are properly configured using a dynamic routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Router A is forwarding data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path?

If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will determine that all paths have equal cost.

If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will update only the A-C-E path in its routing table.

If the network uses the EIGRP routing protocol, router A will determine that path A-D-E has the lowest cost.

If both RIP and EIGRP protocols are configured on router A, the router will use the route information that is learned by the RIP routing protocol.
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Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run at R1. Which two facts about the newly detected device can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)

ABCD is a router that is connected to R1.

ABCD is a non-CISCO device that is connected to R1.

The device is connected at the Serial0/0/1 interface of R1.

R1 is connected at the S0/0/1 interface of device ABCD.

ABCD does not support switching capability.
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Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?

The Dijkstra algorithm will calculate the feasible successor.

DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.

Neighbor 172.16.3.2 will be promoted to the feasible successor.

Traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0 network will be dropped immediately due to lack of a feasible successor.
42
What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

It connects multiple IP networks.

It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.

It determines the best path to send packets.

It manages the VLAN database.

It increases the size of the broadcast domain.
43
A network administrator uses the RIP routing protocol to implement routing within an autonomous system. What are two characteristics of this protocol? (Choose two.)

It uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm to determine the best path.

It displays an actual map of the network topology.

It offers rapid convergence in large networks.

It periodically sends complete routing tables to all connected devices.

It is beneficial in complex and hierarchically designed networks.
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A network is configured with the IP, IPX, and AppleTalk protocols. Which routing protocol is recommended for this network?

RIPv1

RIPv2

EIGRP

OSPF
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Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this?

The two routers are connected on a multiaccess network.

The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers.

They have different OSPF router IDs.

They have different process IDs.
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Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?

Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.

The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.

The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.

The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.

The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
47
Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)

They are aware of the complete network topology.

They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.

They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.

They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.

They do not work well in networks that require special hierarchical designs.

They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only.
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Refer to the exhibit. What action will R2 take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.2.0?

It will drop the packet.

It will forward the packet via the S0/0/0 interface.

It will forward the packet via the Fa0/0 interface.

It will forward the packet to R1.
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What should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose two.)

OSPF interval timers mismatch

administrative distance mismatch

interface network type mismatch

no loopback interface configured

gateway of last resort not redistributed
50
A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what way might EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route fails?

It broadcasts hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.

It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until a new successor route is found.

It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors.

It will set the metric for the failed route to infinity.

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