Cisco CCNA Exploration 4.0 - Module Questions & answers ccna 640 802

Đồng Quốc Vương wants to chat

ccnav4 — Fri, 15 Jul 2011 14:15:05 +0000

I’ve been using Google Talk and thought you might like to try it out. We can use it to call each other for free over the internet. Here’s an invitation to download Google Talk. Give it a try!

Cisco Packet Tracer Version 5.3.2 Available

ccnav4 — Tue, 24 May 2011 03:33:52 +0000

Cisco Packet Tracer Version 5.3.2 Available

Cisco Packet Tracer Software Downloads
Packet Tracer Version 5.3 2 Software Downloads
Packet Tracer version 5.3.2 is a maintenance release that fixes functional and technical issues in the previous versions. It replaces Packet Tracer version 5.3.1
Packet Tracer 5.3 2 supports activities authored in Packet Tracer 4.0, 4.1, 4.11, 5.0, 5.1, 5.2.x , and 5.3.x Please note that the last two courses of the CCNA Discovery and CCNA Exploration curricula require Packet Tracer version 4.11 at a minimum, CCNA Security requires version 5.2 at a minimum, and the beta Packet Tracer Skills Based Assessments require version 5.2.1 at a minimum. The curricula are fully compatible with Packet Tracer 5.3.2
You can download both the Packet Tracer application and tutorial files in one download package. However, due to the large file size it is faster to download the application by itself, if that is all you need. Choose the download option appropriate for your needs.

Windows:

Title	Document Type
Packet Tracer v5.3.2 Application + Tutorial This is the complete Packet Tracer program including tutorials as a single downloadable package for Windows 2000, XP and Vista.	(EXE – 80 MB)
Packet Tracer v5.3.2 Application only This option is just the Packet Tracer program and the help files for Windows 2000, XP and Vista. It does not include the tutorial files. The tutorial files are not necessary to run Packet Tracer.	(EXE – 47 MB)

Linux:
Use Firefox to download the Linux.bin files as Internet Explorer doesn’t load them correctly.
To install the Linux BIN packages, set the permission to be executable (chmod +x PacketTracer52_*.bin) then execute the binary in the terminal.

Title	Document Type
Packet Tracer v5.3.2 Application + Tutorial Linux-Ubuntu This is the complete Packet Tracer program including tutorials as a single downloadable package for Ubuntu release 7.10.	(BIN – 101 MB)
Packet Tracer v5.3.2 Application only Linux-Ubuntu This option is just the Packet Tracer program and the help files for Ubuntu release 7.10. It does not include the tutorial files. The tutorial files are not necessary to run Packet Tracer.	(BIN – 68 MB)
Packet Tracer v5.3.2 Application + Tutorial – Generic Ubuntu This is the complete Packet Tracer program including tutorials for generic Ubuntu	(tar.gz – 102 MB)
Packet Tracer v5.3.2 Application + Tutorial Linux-Fedora This is the complete Packet Tracer program including tutorials as a single downloadable package for Fedora release 7.	(BIN – 98 MB)
Packet Tracer v5.3.2 Application only Linux-Fedora This option is just the Packet Tracer program and the help files for Fedora release 7. It does not include the tutorial files. The tutorial files are not necessary to run Packet Tracer.	(BIN – 65 MB)
Packet Tracer v5.3.2 Application + Tutorial Generic Fedora This is the complete Packet Tracer program including tutorials for generic Fedora	(tar.gz – 99 MB)

ccna 2011 question and answers updates

ccnav4 — Thu, 24 Mar 2011 08:56:59 +0000

CCNA 2011 question and answers updates

CCNA 1 V4.0 Exam Answers

CCNA 2 V4.0 Exam Answers

CCNA 3 V4.0 Exam Answers

CCNA 1 Final Exam V4.0 Answers

ccnav4 — Fri, 07 Jan 2011 15:41:43 +0000

CCNA 1 Final Exam V4.0 Answers

Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?
00-08-a3-b6-ce-46
198.133.219.25:80
http://www.CCNAAnswers.org
C 198.133.219.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0

2. Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ?
Switch-6J>
Switch-6J#
Switch-6J(config)#
Switch-6J(config-if)#
Switch-6J(config-line)#

3. Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two)
Router(config)# line vty 0 3 Router(config-line)# password c13c0
Router(config-line)# login
The entries specify three Telnet lines for remote access.
The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.
The entries set the console and Telnet password to “c13c0″.
Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete.
Access will be permitted for Telnet using “c13c0″ as the password.

Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
Connection 1 – rollover cable
Connection 2 – straight-through cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable
Connection 1 – crossover cable
Connection 2 – rollover cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable
Connection 1 – straight-through cable
Connection 2 – crossover cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable
Connection 1 – straight-through cable
Connection 2 – crossover cable
Connection 3 – straight-through cable
Connection 1 – crossover cable
Connection 2 – straight-through cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable

Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?
address translation
DHCP services
ftpd
web server

6. When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what is usually used to acknowledge that the data was received and to request the retransmission of missing data?
IP
UDP
Ethernet
a connectionless acknowledgement
an upper-layer, connection-oriented protocol or service

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IP and MAC addresses in this communication?
Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.94

Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.)
segment1
segment2
segment3
segment4
segment5

9. What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three)
uses a flat structure
prevent broadcasts
heirarchical
uniquely identifies each host
48 bits in length
contains a network portion

10.

Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two)
A single broadcast domain is present
Two logical address ranges are required.
Three broadcast domains are shown.
Four networks are needed.
Five collision domains exist.

11.

Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.)
This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
The source port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
The data is flowing from server to client.
The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated.
The data listed is associated with the transport layer.
The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.

12. In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?
Flash
NVRAM
RAM
ROM

13.

Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B. What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?
issue the clock rate command on interface Serial 0/0/0
issue the description command on interface Serial 0/0/1
issue the ip address command on interface FastEthernet 0/0
issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1

14.

Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?
127.0.0.1
192.168.64.196
192.168.254.1
192.168.254.9
192.168.254.254

15. Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?
172.16.128.0 255.255.255.224
172.16.128.0 255.255.0.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.192.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.255.192

16.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?
leaving host A
leaving ATL
leaving Dallas
leaving NYC

17.

Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients. Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram.
1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
1.MDA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MUA 7.POP 8.MDA
1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

18.

Refer to the exhibit. The command that is shown was issued on a PC. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent?
IP address of the host
default gateway of the host
IP address of the homepage for the host
primary domain name server for the host
IP address of the website resolver1.mooki.local

19.

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?
Host A was assigned a network address.
Host B was assigned a multicast address.
Host A and Host B belong to different networks.
The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.

20.

Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial tracert packet from PC1?
Athens
Ankara
London
Paris
PC4

21. Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created?
vty
aux
console
enable secret
enable password

22. Which OSI layer does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?
application
presentation
session
transport

23.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two)
This is a server response.
The UDP protocol is being used.
The destination port indicates a Telnet session.
The return segment will contain a source port of 23.
The next session originated from the client of this session will use the source port number 13358.

24. The Layer 4 header contains which type of information to aid in the delivery of data?
service port number
host logical address
device physical address
virtual connection identifier

25. As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0?
255.255.0.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.252.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128

26. When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?
when the interface is functioning as a DTE device
when the interface timers have been cleared
when the connected DTE device is shut down
when the interface is functioning as a DCE device

27.

Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on Router1?
an FTP client
a Telnet client
a terminal emulation program
a web browser

28.

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?
A, B, D, G
A, B, E, F
C, D, G, I
G, H, I, J

29.

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?
IP address: 192.168.100.19; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.16.1.2
IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17
IP address: 192.168.100.21; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18
IP address: 192.168.100.22; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 10.1.1.5
IP address: 192.168.100.30; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.1.1
IP address: 192.168.100.31; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18

30. A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?
access point
host
hub
router
switch

31. Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)
10 Base-T
10 Base-2
10 Base-5
100 Base-FX
100 Base TX
1000 Base LX

32.

Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three)
192.168.18.38
192.168.18.48
192.168.18.49
192.168.18.52
192.168.18.59
192.168.18.63

33. Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.)
172.16.4.63 /26
172.16.4.129 /26
172.16.4.191 /26
172.16.4.51 /27
172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.221 /27

34.

Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
1
3
4
5
7

35. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three)
Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy.
A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.
The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision.
All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.
After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.

36. A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most secure?
console
enable
enable secret
VTY

37. A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?
Use the ipconfig /all command at the host’s command prompt.
Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.
Use the traceroute command at the command prompt to identify any failures on the path to the gateway.
Use FTP to check for connectivity to remote sites.
Download a troubleshooting tool from the PC manufacturer’s website.

38.

Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?
only computer D
only computer A and computer D
only computer B, computer C, and computer D
all computers

39.

Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?
IP address incorrectly entered
network cables unplugged
subnet mask incorrectly entered
network card failure

40. Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.)
physical addressing
encoding
routing
cabling
media access control

41.

Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet?
The packet will be dropped.
The packet will be forwarded via FastEthernet 0/0.
The packet will be forwarded to the destination host.
The packet will be forwarded to the 192.168.1.3 next-hop address.

42. Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers?
0 to 255
0 to 1023
1024 to 49151
49152 to 65535

43.

Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)
The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing.
The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network.
The network of this computer can have 126 hosts.
The prefix of the computer address is /27.
The IP address that is assigned to the computer is routable on the Internet.
The IP address that is assigned to the computer is a broadcast address.

44.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using Telnet. Which statement is true about this connection?
The data is automatically encrypted.
A Telnet server process is running on PC1.
The connection is made through a VTY session on the router.
A GET request was sent to RouterB to retrieve data during this session.

45. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.

TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.

46. Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
200.100.50.0 to 200.100.25.255
150.150.0.0 to 150.150.255.255
172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
127.16.0.0 to 127.31.255.255

47. Which OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?
application
presentation
session
transport
network

48.

Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network?
star
ring
point-to-point
multiaccess
mesh

49. During the encapsulation process, which identifiers are added at the transport layer?
two networks routing the packets
two applications communicating the data
two hosts at either end of the communication
two nodes on the local network exchanging the frame

50. What are two characteristics of the data link layer? (Choose two.)
It segments and reorders the data.
It exchanges the frames between nodes.
It defines the method by which network devices place data onto the media.
It manages the transfer of data between the processes that run on each host.
It retrieves signals from the media and restores them to their bit representations.

CCNA 2 Final Exam V4.0 Answers

ccnav4 — Fri, 07 Jan 2011 15:36:21 +0000

CCNA 2 Final Exam V4.0 Answers

Refer to the exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)
Paris(config)# router eigrp 100
Paris(config)# router eigrp
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0

2. In a lab test environment, a router has learned about network 172.16.1.0 through four different dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach this network?
D 172.16.1.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Serial0/0/0
O 172.16.1.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Serial0/0/0
R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Serial0/0/0
I 172.16.1.0/24 [100/1192] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Serial0/0/0

3. Which routing protocol maintains a topology table separate from the routing table?
IGRP
RIPv1
RIPv2
EIGRP

4. Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are unable to establish an adjacency. What two configuration changes will correct the problem? (Choose two.)
Set a lower priority on R2.
Configure the routers in the same area.
Set a lower cost on R2 compared to R1.
Add a backup designated router to the network.
Match the hello and dead timers on both routers.

5. Which statement is true about the metrics used by routing protocols?
A metric is a value used by a particular routing protocol to compare paths to remote networks.
A common metric is used by all routing protocols.
The metric with the highest value is installed in the routing table.
The router may use only one parameter at a time to calculate the metric.

6. Refer to the exhibit. Although R2 is configured correctly, host A is unable to access the Internet. Which two static routes can be configured on R1 to enable Internet connectivity for host A? (Choose two.)
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Fa0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Fa0/1
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.2
ip route 209.165.202.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.1
ip route 209.165.202.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2

7. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet. What is the reason for this?
The IP address of host A is incorrect.
The default gateway of host A is incorrect.
The Fa0/1 interfaces of the two routers are configured for different subnets.
The subnet mask for the Fa0/0 interface of R1 is incorrect.

Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this?
The two routers are connected on a multiaccess network.
The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers.
They have different OSPF router IDs.
They have different process IDs.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?
Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.
The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.

10. Refer to the exhibit. A ping between the serial interfaces of R1 and R2 is successful, but a ping between their FastEthernet interfaces fails. What is the reason for this problem?
The FastEthernet interface of R1 is disabled.
One of the default routes is configured incorrectly.
A routing protocol is not configured on both routers.
The default gateway has not been configured on both routers.

11. Which router component is used to store the routing table?
Flash
NVRAM
ROM
SDRAM

12. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIPv2 routing protocol and static routes are undefined. R1 can ping 192.168.2.1 and 10.1.1.2, but is unable to ping 192.168.4.1.
What is the reason for the ping failure?
The serial interface between two routers is down.
R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.
The 192.168.4.0 network is not included in the RIP configuration of R2.
RIPv1 needs to be configured.

13. What two routing protocols use a hierarchal network topology? (Choose two.)
IS-IS
EIGRP
OSPF
RIPv1
RIPv2

14. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via their serial interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the directly connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP neighbor adjacency.
What action should be taken to solve this problem?
Enable the serial interfaces of both routers.
Configure EIGRP to send periodic updates.
Configure the same hello interval between the routers.
Configure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID.

15.

Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the highlighted output?
R1 is originating the route 172.30.200.32/28.
Automatic summarization is disabled.
The 172.30.200.16/28 network is one hop away from R1.
A classful routing protocol is being used.

16. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wants to reduce the size of the routing table of R1. Which partial routing table entry in R1 represents the route summary for R2, without including any additional subnets?
10.0.0.0/16 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 10.5.0.0[90/205891] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0
10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 4 subnets
D 10.5.0.0[90/205198] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0
10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 10.5.0.0[90/205901] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0
10.0.0.0/8 is subnetted, 4 subnets
D 10.5.0.0[90/205001] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0

17.

Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29 and 10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access each other. What can be the cause of this problem?
Because RIPv1 is a classless protocol, it does not support this access.
RIPv1 does not support discontiguous networks.
RIPv1 does not support load balancing.
RIPv1 does not support automatic summarization.

18.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
A(config)# no router rip

19. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown, and all interfaces are functioning correctly. A ping from R1 to 172.16.1.1 fails. What could be the cause of this problem?
The serial interface on R1 is configured incorrectly.
The default route is configured incorrectly.
The default-information originate command must be issued on R1.
Autosummarization must be disabled on R1.

20. A router has learned two equal cost paths to a remote network via the EIGRP and RIP protocols. Both protocols are using their default configurations. Which path to the remote network will be installed in the routing table?
the path learned via EIGRP
the path learned via RIP
the path with the highest metric value
both paths with load balancing

21. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 2?
It is the administrative distance of the routing protocol.
It is the number of hops between R2 and the 192.168.8.0/24 network.
It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
It is the convergence time measured in seconds.

22.

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output from the show running-config and debug ip rip commands, what are two of the routes that are added to the routing table of R1? (Choose two.)
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/1
R 192.168.100.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
S 192.168.1.0/24 [1/0] via FastEthernet0/0
R 192.168.9.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.2, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0

23. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R3 use different routing protocols with default administrative distance values. All devices are properly configured and the destination network is advertised by both protocols.
Which path will be used to transmit the data packets between PC1 and PC2?
The packets will travel via R2-R1.
The packets will travel via R2-R3.
The traffic will be load-balanced between two paths — via R2-R1 and via R2-R3.
The packets will travel via R2-R3, and the other path via R2-R1 will be retained as the backup path.

24. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
It forwards data packets toward their destination.
It forwards the packet to the destination if the TTL value is 0.
It changes the destination IP address of data packets before forwarding them to an exit interface.
It determines the best path based on the destination MAC address.
It acts as an intersection between multiple IP networks.

25.

Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2, and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. All routers are operational and pings are not blocked on this network.
Which ping will fail?
from R1 to 172.16.1.1
from R1 to 192.168.3.1
from R2 to 192.168.1.1
from R2 to 192.168.3.1

26. A network administrator needs to assign the very last usable IP address in the 172.24.64.0/18 network range to the router interface that serves this LAN. Which IP address should the administrator configure on the interface?
172.16.128.154/18
172.16.255.254/18
172.24.64.254/18
172.24.127.254/18

27. Which two statements are true about the EIGRP successor route? (Choose two.)
It is saved in the topology table for use if the primary route fails.
It may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
It is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to the destination.
It is flagged as active in the routing table.
After the discovery process has occurred, the successor route is stored in the neighbor table.

28. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new subnet of 50 hosts to R3. Which subnet address should be used for the new subnet that provides enough addresses while wasting a minimum of addresses?
192.168.1.0/24
192.168.1.48 /28
192.168.1.32/27
192.168.1.64/26

29.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.
The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boundaries and should be summarized.
Packets routed to the R2 Fast Ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.
The static route will not work correctly.

30. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about router R2?
The routing table content indicates that interface S0/0/0 is administratively down.
The route for 172.16.1.0 is a static route.
A packet that is destined for a host on the 172.16.3.0 network is forwarded without performing a routing table lookup.
The packets that are routed to network 172.16.1.0 require two routing table lookups.

31. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0

32. How does route poisoning prevent routing loops?
New routing updates are ignored until the network has converged.
Failed routes are advertised with a metric of infinity.
A route is marked as unavailable when its Time to Live is exceeded.
The unreachable route is cleared from the routing table after the invalid timer expires.

33. Refer to the exhibit. A router learns a route to the 192.168.6.0 network, as shown in the output of the show ip rip database command. However, upon running the show ip route command, the network administrator sees that the router has installed a different route to the 192.168.6.0 network learned via EIGRP. What could be the reason for the missing RIP route?
Compared to RIP, EIGRP has a lower administrative distance.
Compared to EIGRP, RIP has a higher metric value for the route.
Compared to RIP, the EIGRP route has fewer hops.
Compared to RIP, EIGRP has a faster update timer.

34. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
10.0.0.0/8
64.100.0.0/16
128.107.0.0/16
172.16.40.0/24
192.168.1.0/24
192.168.2.0/24

35. Which statement is true about the RIPv1 protocol?
It is a link-state routing protocol.
It excludes subnet information from the routing updates.
It uses the DUAL algorithm to insert backup routes into the topology table.
It uses classless routing as the default method on the router.

36. All routers in a network are configured in a single OSPF area with the same priority value. No loopback interface has been set on any of the routers. Which secondary value will the routers use to determine the router ID?
The highest MAC address among the active interfaces of the network will be used.
There will be no router ID until a loopback interface is configured.
The highest IP address among the active FastEthernet interfaces that are running OSPF will be used.
The highest IP address among the active interfaces will be used.

37. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is configured properly and all interfaces are functional. Router R1 has been installed recently. Host A is unable to ping host B.
Which procedure can resolve this problem?
Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of the serial interface on R1.
Configure a default route on R1 with the exit interface Fa0/0 on R1.
Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of S0/0/0 on R2.
Configure a default route on R1 using the IP address of Fa0/0 on R2.

38. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)
As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.
If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route.
If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.
The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.
EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update.
EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.

39.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is planning IP addressing of a new network. What part of this addressing scheme must be changed to allow communication between host A and the server?
the IP address of the server
the default gateway of host A
the IP address of host A
the default gateway of the server

40. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations.
It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.
It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.
It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of time.
It limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded.

41. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
The routers must elect a designated router.
The routers must agree on the network type.
The routers must use the same dead interval.
The routers must exchange link state requests.
The routers must exchange database description packets.

42. Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.)
the IP address of the first FastEthernet interface
the highest IP address of any logical interface
the highest IP address of any physical interface
the default gateway IP address
the priority value of 1 on any physical interface

43. What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet?
It is used to confirm the receipt of LSUs.
It is used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers.
It is used by the receiving routers to request more information about any entry in the DBD.
It is used to check the database synchronization between routers.

44. Refer to the exhibit. Which summarization should R1 use to advertise its networks to R2?
192.168.1.0/24
192.168.0.0/24
192.168.0.0/22
192.168.1.0/22

45. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts that are connected to R2 are unable to ping the hosts that are connected to R1. How can this problem be resolved?
Configure the router ID on both routers.
Configure the R2 router interfaces for area 0.
Configure a loopback interface on both routers.
Configure the proper subnet masks on the router interfaces.

46.

Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?
Router1
Router2
Router3
Router4

47.

Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?
All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.
Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.
The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.
A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.

48. When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot system command?
ROM, TFTP server, flash
flash, TFTP server, ROM
flash, NVRAM, TFTP server
NVRAM, TFTP server, flash

49. Which two statements are true for link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
Routers that run a link-state protocol can establish a complete topology of the network.
Routers in a multipoint network that run a link-state protocol can exchange routing tables.
Routers use only hop count for routing decisions.
The shortest path first algorithm is used.
Split horizon is used to avoid routing loops.

50. Refer to the exhibit. While trying to diagnose a routing problem in the network, the network administrator runs the debug ip rip command. What can be determined from the output of this command?
The router will be unable to ping 192.168.1.2.
The router has two interfaces that participate in the RIP process.
The router will forward the updates for 192.168.1.0 on interface Serial0/0/1.
The router is not originating routes for 172.16.1.0.

51. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.
No default route has been configured.

52. Refer to the exhibit. The 10.4.0.0 network fails. What mechanism prevents R2 from receiving false update information regarding the 10.4.0.0 network?
split horizon
hold-down timers
route poisoning
triggered updates

53. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
They are aware of the complete network topology.
They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.
They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.
They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.
They do not work well in networks that require special hierarchical designs.
They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only.

54. Refer to the exhibit. What action will R2 take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.2.0?
It will drop the packet.
It will forward the packet via the S0/0/0 interface.
It will forward the packet via the Fa0/0 interface.
It will forward the packet to R1.

55. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.

56. A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?
The IOS image is corrupt.
Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory.
The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.
The POST process has detected hardware failure.

57. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are ultimate routes?
3
4
5
7

58. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be derived from this output? (Choose two.)
Three network devices are directly connected to Router2.
The serial interface between Router2 and Router3 is up.
Router1 and Router3 are directly connected.
Six devices are up and running on the network.
Layer 3 functionality between routers is configured properly.

59. A network is configured with the IP, IPX, and AppleTalk protocols. Which routing protocol is recommended for this network?
RIPv1
RIPv2
EIGRP
OSPF

60. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
The administrative distance of EIGRP has been set to 50.
All routes are stable.
The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
Each route has one feasible successor.

61. Refer to the exhibit. To implement the RIPv2 protocol, the network administrator runs the commands as displayed. However, the show ip protocol command fails to display any output. How can the administrator solve the problem that is indicated by the lack of output from this command?
Include the default-information originate command.
Include the no auto-summary command.
Specify the network for which RIP routing has to be enabled.
Implement RIPv2 authentication in the network.

62.

Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run at R1. Which two facts about the newly detected device can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)
ABCD is a router that is connected to R1.
ABCD is a non-CISCO device that is connected to R1.
The device is connected at the Serial0/0/1 interface of R1.
R1 is connected at the S0/0/1 interface of device ABCD.
ABCD does not support switching capability.

63. Refer to the exhibit. The routers are properly configured using a dynamic routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Router A is forwarding data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path?
If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will determine that all paths have equal cost.
If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will update only the A-C-E path in its routing table.
If the network uses the EIGRP routing protocol, router A will determine that path A-D-E has the lowest cost.
If both RIP and EIGRP protocols are configured on router A, the router will use the route information that is learned by the RIP routing protocol.

64. Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are addressed and functioning correctly. The network administrator runs the tracert command on host A. Which two facts could be responsible for the output of this command? (Choose two.)
The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R1.
The entry for 192.168.1.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R2.
The entry for 10.1.1.0/30 is missing from the routing table of R1.
The entry for 10.1.1.0/30 is missing from the routing table of R2.
The entry for 192.168.1.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R1.
The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R2.

65.

Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIP protocol. Devices on the 192.168.1.1 network can ping the S0/0/0 interface on R2 but cannot ping devices on the 192.168.2.1 network. What is a possible cause of this problem?
The routers are configured with different versions of RIP.
R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.
The R1 configuration should include the no auto-summary command.
The maximum path number has been exceeded.

66. Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured correctly. The network administrator has configured R1 as shown. Which two facts can be deduced from the configuration of R1? (Choose two.)
R1 will forward the route information for subnet 192.168.100.0/30.
The administrative distance has been set to 50 on R1.
R1 will not forward route information for subnet 192.168.100.4.0/30.
R1 will forward the EGRP update for subnet 10.10.10.0/30.
Autosummarization must be enabled.

67. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Which statement correctly describes the path that the traffic will use from the 10.1.1.0/24 network to the 10.1.2.0/24 network?
It will use the A-D path only.
It will use the path A-D, and the paths A-C-D and A-B-D will be retained as the backup paths.
It will use all the paths equally in a round-robin fashion.
The traffic will be load-balanced between A-B-D and A-C-D.

68. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
DRAM – loads the bootstrap
RAM – stores the operating system
Flash – executes diagnostics at bootup
NVRAM – stores the configuration file
ROM – stores the backup configuration file
POST – runs diagnostics on hardware modules

69. A network administrator uses the RIP routing protocol to implement routing within an autonomous system. What are two characteristics of this protocol? (Choose two.)
It uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm to determine the best path.
It displays an actual map of the network topology.
It offers rapid convergence in large networks.
It periodically sends complete routing tables to all connected devices.
It is beneficial in complex and hierarchically designed networks.

70. Refer to the exhibit. Which two components are required to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)
a CSU/DSU device
a DTE device
a DCE device
a crossover cable
a V.35 cable

71. Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for router R1 is displayed. What action will the router take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.5?
It will drop the packet.
It will forward the packet to interface Serial0/0/0.
It will determine the route for the packet through a routing protocol.
It will forward the packet to the default gateway.

72. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running the same routing protocol. Based on the exhibit and its displayed commands, which statement is true?
Routers B, C, and D have no access to the Internet.
The link to the ISP will be excluded from the routing protocol process.
A default route must be configured on every router.
The wildcard mask is incorrectly configured.

73. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is accessing router R1 from the console port. Once the administrator is connected to the router, which password should the administrator enter at the R1> prompt to access the privileged EXEC mode?
Cisco001
Cisco123
Cisco789
Cisco901

74. A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what way might EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route fails?
It broadcasts hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.
It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until a new successor route is found.
It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors.
It will set the metric for the failed route to infinity.

Packet Tracer Version 5.3.1 Software Downloads

ccnav4 — Tue, 09 Nov 2010 01:41:04 +0000

packet tracer 5.3.1

Packet Tracer Version 5.3.1 Software Downloads

Packet Tracer version 5.3.1 is a maintenance release that fixes functional and technical issues in previous versions. It replaces Packet Tracer version 5.3

Packet Tracer 5.3.1 supports activities authored in Packet Tracer 4.0, 4.1, 4.11, 5.0, 5.1, 5.2.x and 5.3. Please note that the last two courses of the CCNA Discovery and CCNA Exploration curricula require Packet Tracer version 4.11 at a minimum, CCNA Security requires version 5.2 at a minimum, and the beta Packet Tracer Skills Based Assessments require version 5.2.1 at a minimum. The curricula are fully compatible with Packet Tracer 5.3.1

You can download both the Packet Tracer application and tutorial files in one download package. However, due to the large file size it is faster to download the application by itself, if that is all you need. Choose the download option appropriate for your needs.

packet tracer 5.3.1 for windows

Windows:

Title	Document Type
Packet Tracer v5.3.1 Application + Tutorial This is the complete Packet Tracer program including tutorials as a single downloadable package for Windows 2000, XP and Vista.	(EXE – 73.4 MB)
Packet Tracer v5.3.1 Application only This option is just the Packet Tracer program and the help files for Windows 2000, XP and Vista. It does not include the tutorial files. The tutorial files are not necessary to run Packet Tracer.	(EXE – 41.5 MB)

Linux:
To install the Linux BIN packages, set the permission to be executable (chmod +x PacketTracer53_*.bin) then execute the binary in the terminal.

Title	Document Type
Packet Tracer v5.3.1 Application + Tutorial Linux-Ubuntu This is the complete Packet Tracer program including tutorials as a single downloadable package for Ubuntu release 7.10.	(BIN – 98.1 MB)
Packet Tracer v5.3.1 Application only Linux-Ubuntu This option is just the Packet Tracer program and the help files for Ubuntu release 7.10. It does not include the tutorial files. The tutorial files are not necessary to run Packet Tracer.	(BIN – 65.7 MB)
Packet Tracer v5.3.1 Application + Tutorial -Generic Ubuntu This is the complete Packet Tracer program including tutorials for generic Ubuntu	(tar.gz – 98.9 MB)
Packet Tracer v5.3.1 Application + Tutorial Linux-Fedora This is the complete Packet Tracer program including tutorials as a single downloadable package for Fedora release 7.	(BIN – 95.3 MB)
Packet Tracer v5.3.1 Application only Linux-Fedora This option is just the Packet Tracer program and the help files for Fedora release 7. It does not include the tutorial files. The tutorial files are not necessary to run Packet Tracer.	(BIN – 63.0 MB)
Packet Tracer v5.3.1 Application + Tutorial Generic Fedora This is the complete Packet Tracer program including tutorials for generic Fedora.	(tar.gz – 95.9 MB)

Packet Tracer Version 5.2.1.8 Software Downloads

Packet Tracer version 5.2.1.8 is a maintenance release that fixes a software issue in version 5.2.1 that causes the Check Results button to be incorrectly disabled in certain situations. Packet Tracer 5.2.1.8 has been replaced by PT 5.3, but will continue being available for download for anybody needing to revert to this version.

Windows:

Title	Document Type
Packet Tracer v5.2.1.8 Application + Tutorial This is the complete Packet Tracer program including tutorials as a single downloadable package for Windows 2000, XP and Vista.	(EXE – 65 MB)
Packet Tracer v5.2.1.8 Application only This option is just the Packet Tracer program and the help files for Windows 2000, XP and Vista. It does not include the tutorial files. The tutorial files are not necessary to run Packet Tracer.	(EXE – 34 MB)

Linux:
To install the Linux BIN packages, set the permission to be executable (chmod +x PacketTracer52_*.bin) then execute the binary in the terminal.

Title	Document Type
Packet Tracer v5.2.1.8 Application + Tutorial Linux-Ubuntu This is the complete Packet Tracer program including tutorials as a single downloadable package for Ubuntu release 7.10.	(BIN – 87 MB)
Packet Tracer v5.2.1.8 Application only Linux-Ubuntu This option is just the Packet Tracer program and the help files for Ubuntu release 7.10. It does not include the tutorial files. The tutorial files are not necessary to run Packet Tracer.	(BIN – 56 MB)
Packet Tracer v5.2.1.8 Application + Tutorial Linux-Fedora This is the complete Packet Tracer program including tutorials as a single downloadable package for Fedora release 7.	(BIN – 87 MB)
Packet Tracer v5.2.1.8 Application only Linux-Fedora This option is just the Packet Tracer program and the help files for Fedora release 7. It does not include the tutorial files. The tutorial files are not necessary to run Packet Tracer.	(BIN – 56 MB)
Packet Tracer v5.2.1.8 Application + Tutorial Generic This is the complete Packet Tracer program including tutorials for generic Linux distributions with kernel versions 2.6 and above.	(tar.gz – 89 MB)

Link:

Take Assessment – ESwitching Final Exam – CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0)

ccnav4 — Fri, 05 Nov 2010 09:11:39 +0000

Take Assessment – ESwitching Final Exam – CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0)
November 02, 2010

1

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator documented the output of a CAM table from an Ethernet switch as shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?

discard the frame

forward the frame out port 2

forward the frame out port 3

forward the frame out all ports

forward the frame out all ports except port 3

add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to port 2 in the forwarding table

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator issues the commands as shown on SwitchB. What is the result for port Fa0/22?

The port is disabled.

Security is enabled on the port.

The port becomes a trunk port.

The port is now a member of the default VLAN.

3
What is one reason that SSID cloaking is not considered an effective security measure for a wireless network?

The SSID is not required to connect to a wireless network.

The SSID is broadcast in probe messages from clients that are looking for the AP.

The SSID is the same as the AP MAC address, which is sent in every message.

An attacker can spoof the SSID simply by using an SSID of NULL in all messages.

Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host?

192.168.1.11 /28

192.168.1.22 /28

192.168.1.33 /28

192.168.1.44 /28

192.168.1.55 /28

5
While configuring a new switch, a network administrator configures the switch as an HTTP server. What benefits does this configuration provide?

This allows the switch to host web pages for the network.

This allows remote VPN connections to the switch over the Internet.

This is required if a web server or web farm is attached to the switch.

This allows web-based configuration tools to be used with the switch.

Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?

QoS

routing

trunking

VPN

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has designed and implemented a hierarchical network. What is the maximum network diameter between any two hosts on the network?

five

six

ten

twelve

A wireless client is attempting to establish a connection with a wireless access point. What process does the client use to discover the access points which are available to it?

probing

beaconing

association

authentication

9
What is the benefit of the auto-MDIX feature on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

dynamically assigns a new management VLAN ID

autonegotiates IP address information for initial management connections

allows the use of straight-through patch cables regardless of connected device types

places a port immediately in the forwarding state to reduce the time for the spanning tree to reconverge

Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?

The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.

The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.

The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.

The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish a trunk.

Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?

Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.

Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.

Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.

Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.

12
What is the purpose of the switch command switchport access vlan 99?

to enable port security

to make the port operational

to assign the port to a particular VLAN

to designate the VLAN that does not get tagged

to assign the port to the native VLAN (VLAN 99)

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)

Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.

Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.

Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.

Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.

Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to download a previously saved configuration file from the TFTP server to Switch1. Which command will accomplish this task?

Switch1# copy tftp://192.168.0.253/backup-confg nvram:startup-config

Switch1# copy tftp://192.168.0.254/backup-confg nvram:startup-config

Switch1# copy nvram:startup-config tftp://192.168.0.253/backup-config

Switch1# copy nvram:startup-config tftp://192.168.0.254/backup-config

15
What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?

A new RSA key pair is created.

The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.

The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.

The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.

Take Assessment – ESwitching Final Exam – CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0)
www.ccna4u.org

16
Which statement about STP network diameter is correct?

STP diameters are restricted by convergence times.

Layer 2 root elections should be optimized by adjusting BPDU timers to match network diameter.

Using lower bandwidth connections between switches will allow STP to have a larger network diameter.

Portfast can be used to increase the allowable switched network diameter because it disables the forward delay and maximum age timers.

17
In the implementation of PVST+ in a specific VLAN where all switches have default spanning tree priorities, which spanning-tree command setting could be assigned to force one of the Catalyst switches to become and remain the root bridge?

root primary

priority 8192

priority 2048

spanning-tree mode rapid pvst

Refer to the exhibit. A new switch, SW3, has been added to the network. The network administrator determines that VLAN information is not propagating to SW3. Which command will remedy the problem?

SW1(config)# vtp version 1

SW2(config)# vtp mode client

SW3(config)# vtp domain Cisco1

SW3(config)# vtp mode transparent

19
In an attempt to improve switch performance, a network administrator changes the MAC aging time to ten seconds. What is a likely result of this decision?

The MAC table will fill with unused addresses.

Address conflicts will cause retransmission errors.

Unnecessary flooding will slow network performance.

Timely MAC address updates will ensure rapid delivery of frames.

20
What is an efficient and cost effective way to minimize the frequency and effects of broadcast storms on an Ethernet LAN?

Connect each PC directly to a router port.

Use access control lists to filter broadcasts from the network.

Divide the computers into separate VLANs on the existing switches.

Divide the computers into separate workgroups using different physical switches.

21
Which value determines if a switch becomes the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology?

lowest bridge ID

highest revision number

lowest numeric IP address

highest numeric MAC address

Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of VLANs that can be deleted from the Switch as it is configured?

zero

four

five

eight

nine

Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?

All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.

SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.

VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1.

The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.

Refer to the exhibit. All edge ports are configured with the spanning-tree portfast command. Host1 is recently connected to port Fa0/1 on switch SW1 . Which statement is true about the status of port Fa0/1?

The port will transition into blocking state.

The port will transition immediately into forwarding state.

The port will transition into blocking state and then immediately into forwarding state.

The port will transition into blocking state and immediately transition through the listening and learning states.

Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown?

This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator.

When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.

Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18.

The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18.

26
Which type of traffic can still be received on a switch interface that is in STP blocking mode?

BPDU frames

multicast frames

broadcast frames

Layer 3 packets

Refer to the exhibit. Hosts B and C attempt to transmit a frame at the same time, but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?

all hosts that are shown

only hosts B and C

only hosts A, B, and C

only hosts A, B, C, and D

only hosts A, D, E, and F

only hosts D, E, and F

28
Which security protocol or measure would provide the greatest protection for a wireless LAN?

WPA2

cloaking SSIDs

shared WEP key

MAC address filtering

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the status of interface Fa0/1?

The interface is not configured to transmit data.

The interface is configured to transmit data at 10 Mb/s speed.

The interface is configured to transmit data in half-duplex mode.

The interface is configured to use HDLC encapsulation to transmit data.

30
What is the purpose of configuring a switch port as a trunk port?

to control the broadcast domain size

to eliminate the collisions that result from multiple VLANs

to transmit data from multiple VLANs through a single port

to increase the bandwidth between the switch and its upstream device

31
In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?

client

root

server

transparent

32
When implementing a router-on-a-stick, what must be configured on the router to ensure connectivity between different VLANs?

subinterfaces

routing protocol

switched virtual circuits

dynamic trunking protocol

Refer to the exhibit. VTP pruning is enabled in the VTP domain that is shown. How will switch ST-1 handle Layer 2 broadcast traffic originating from host A on switch ST-C?

It will be dropped.

It will be forwarded out port Fa0/5 only.

It will be forwarded out ports Fa0/5 and Fa0/10.

It will be forwarded out ports Fa0/5, Fa0/10, and Fa0/15.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to add IP phones to the network. To which devices should the IP phones connect?

AS1 and AS2

DS1 and DS2

DS1, DS2, and CS1

AS1, AS2, DS1, and DS2

Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?

switch A

switch B

switch C

switch D

switch E

switch F

36
Why is MAC address filtering considered a poor choice in securing a WLAN?

Available bandwidth is reduced.

MAC addresses are easily spoofed.

APs are more susceptible to DoS attacks.

The payload encryption is easily broken.

Refer to the exhibit. What are two reasons for the Fa0/24 port being placed in the blocking state? (Choose two.)

This switch is not the root bridge.

The Fa0/24 port is administratively down.

STP has detected links that create a loop.

There is a change in the VTP configuration.

The Fa0/24 port is overloaded with too much traffic for its configured bandwidth.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two settings show the default value of VTP configuration on a Cisco 2960 switch? (Choose two.)

revision number

existing VLANs

operating mode

domain name

pruning mode

39
Company policy requires disabling the command history buffer on network devices. An administrator enters terminal no history size at the command prompt on a Cisco Catalyst switch and receives no error messages back, but the command history buffer is still available. What is the problem?

The command contained a syntax error.

The Cisco IOS version does not support disabling the command history buffer.

The command history can only be disabled on a router, not a switch.

The size parameter reset the default buffer size but did not disable access to the buffer.

Refer to the exhibit. Which Spanning Tree Protocol version is in effect?

Per VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST)

Per VLAN Spanning Tree + (PVST+)

Common Spanning Tree (CST)

Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)

Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)

Refer to the exhibit. All switch interfaces are members of the same VLAN. What information is used by Switch1 to determine if incoming frames from the hosts should be forwarded to Router1?

the source address field in the IP header

the destination port number in the TCP header

the destination address field in the Layer 3 header

the destination address field in the Ethernet header

Refer to the exhibit. The configuration steps that are listed in the exhibit have been entered in switch S1 via the console. Subsequent attempts to telnet to the switch are not successful. What is causing the problem?

The switch must be configured with SSH version 1.

The transport input command must specify Telnet access.

The RSA keys must be returned to zero before SSH will permit Telnet access.

The ip domain-name command must also be entered in line configuration mode for the vty lines.

43
What provides an authentication mechanism for 802.11-based wireless networks?

DSSS

OFDM

SSID

WPA

44
How does a switch that is configured for 802.1Q trunking handle untagged frames that are received on a trunk port?

The frames are dropped.

The frames are assigned to the native VLAN.

The frames are assigned to the default VLAN.

The frames are assigned to the management VLAN.

45
Why is it advisable that a network administrator use SSH instead of Telnet when managing switches?

SSH uses TCP whereas Telnet does not.

SSH encrypts only the username and password when logging in.

SSH encrypts all remote management communications whereas Telnet does not.

SSH sends a clear text message steam which reduces the bandwidth use for management.

46
What are two requirements for configuring inter-VLAN routing using the router-on-a-stick model? (Choose two.)

Each subinterface should be configured with its own IP address, subnet mask, and unique VLAN assignment.

The physical interface of the router must be connected to a trunk link on the adjacent switch.

The number of physical interfaces on the router should match the number of VLANs.

Different static VLANs should be assigned to different interfaces of the router.

The router should be configured as the VTP server.

Refer to the exhibit. Users A and B are reporting intermittent connectivity problems. Pre-installation surveys showed strong signal strength from the AP locations to the client locations. Outside electrical interference has been eliminated. What will fix the problem?

Relocate the APs closer to each other.

Increase the distance between the clients.

Change the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11.

Place AP-A and AP-B on the same wireless channel.

48
What is a function or characteristic of the native VLAN?

It is the VLAN that supports untagged traffic on an 802.1Q trunk.

It is always assigned to VLAN 1 for backward compatibility.

It is always the same VLAN number for all trunks within an organization.

It is used as the management VLAN throughout the entire switched network.

Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly describe the router configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)

An IEEE standard trunking protocol is in use.

Interface Fa0/1 has been configured with subinterfaces.

The shutdown command has been applied to interface Fa0/1.

Interface Fa0/1.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.

The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.

An IP address should be applied to interface Fa0/1 for routing to occur.

Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)

After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.

Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.

The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.

Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.

If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.

51
What is the purpose of VTP pruning?

to restrict traffic on specified trunk lines

to designate switches that do not participate in VTP

to advertise VTP domain information to specified switches only

to reduce the propagation of VTP advertisements in the switched network

52
What operational change will occur if an 802.11b client associates with an access point that is currently supporting clients utilizing 802.11g?

The 802.11g clients will disassociate from the AP.

The 802.11g clients will operate at reduced speeds.

The 802.11b client will never gain access to the channel.

The 802.11b client will not be able to establish an IP session with any of the other 802.11g clients.

CCNA2 FINAL F Shared by ccna4u.org

ccnav4 — Mon, 27 Jul 2009 03:26:52 +0000

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Take Assessment – ERouting Practice Final Exam – CCNA Exploration: Routing Protocols and Concepts (Version 4.0)
1

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown, and all interfaces are functioning correctly. A ping from R1 to 172.16.1.1 fails. What could be the cause of this problem?

The serial interface on R1 is configured incorrectly.

The default route is configured incorrectly.

The default-information originate command must be issued on R1.

Autosummarization must be disabled on R1.

2

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?

The packet will be dropped.

The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.

The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0.

The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1.
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3
Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.)

the IP address of the first FastEthernet interface

the highest IP address of any logical interface

the highest IP address of any physical interface

the default gateway IP address

the priority value of 1 on any physical interface
4
What are two reasons for the occurrence of a routing loop? (Choose two.)

slow convergence

incorrectly configured static routes

routes that are learned via two routing protocols

static and dynamic routing being used on the same router

lack of a default route on the router that connects to the Internet

5

The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?

The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that subnetwork.

The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.

The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the address for Serial0 of Router2.

The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
6

Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the highlighted output?

R1 is originating the route 172.30.200.32/28.

Automatic summarization is disabled.

The 172.30.200.16/28 network is one hop away from R1.

A classful routing protocol is being used.
7

Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?

Router1

Router2

Router3

Router4
8

Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is configured properly and all interfaces are functional. Router R1 has been installed recently. Host A is unable to ping host B.

Which procedure can resolve this problem?

Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of the serial interface on R1.

Configure a default route on R1 with the exit interface Fa0/0 on R1.

Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of S0/0/0 on R2.

Configure a default route on R1 using the IP address of Fa0/0 on R2.
9

Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?

172.16.0.0/8

172.16.0.0/10

172.16.0.0/13

172.16.0.0/20

172.16.0.0/24
10

Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?

All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.

Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.

The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.

A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.
11
Which two statements are true about the startup configuration in a router? (Choose two.)

The router uses the startup configuration file to start POST.

If the Cisco IOS cannot be found, the router enters setup mode.

The bootstrap program searches for the startup configuration file in NVRAM.

If the startup config file cannot be found, the router enters ROMMON mode.

The router searches for a TFTP server if the startup configuration file is absent at the default location.
12
Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running the same routing protocol. Based on the exhibit and its displayed commands, which statement is true?

The wildcard mask is incorrectly configured.

A default route must be configured on every router.

Routers B, C, and D have no access to the Internet.

The link to the ISP is not advertised by the routing protocol process.

13
When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot system command?

ROM, TFTP server, flash

flash, TFTP server, ROM

flash, NVRAM, TFTP server

NVRAM, TFTP server, flash
14

Refer to the exhibit. Although both the routers can ping the serial interface of their neighbors, they are unable to ping the Ethernet interfaces of other routers. Which two statements are true for this network? (Choose two.)

The administrative distance has been set to 50 on both routers.

R2 is learning about network 192.168.1.0.

R1 is learning about network 192.168.2.0.

The network 10.1.1.0 command has not been run on both routers.

Autosummarization is enabled on both routers.
15
Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?

The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table.

The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in the routing table.

The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and installs only that route in the routing table.

The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one, holding the others in reserve in case the primary route goes down.

The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces.

Take Assessment – ERouting Practice Final Exam – CCNA Exploration: Routing Protocols and Concepts (Version 4.0)
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16
What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)

tests Layer 2 connectivity

provides a layer of security

operates a OSI layers 2 and 3

enabled by default on each interface

used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues

provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled

17
What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet?

It is used to confirm the receipt of LSUs.

It is used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers.

It is used by the receiving routers to request more information about any entry in the DBD.

It is used to check the database synchronization between routers.
18
What is the first step OSPF and IS-IS routers take in building a shortest path first database?

learn about directly connected networks

send hello to discover neighbors and form adjacencies

choose successors and feasible successors to populate the topology table

flood LSPs to all neighbors informing them of all known networks and their link states
19

Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?

The default gateway is incorrect.

The address is in the wrong subnet.

The host address and default gateway are swapped.

192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet.
20

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.)

Router1 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network

Router1 is missing a route to the 192.168.1.0 network

Router2 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network

Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network

Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network

Router3 is missing a route to the 192.168.0.0 network
21
What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)

The routers must elect a designated router.

The routers must agree on the network type.

The routers must use the same dead interval.

The routers must exchange link state requests.

The routers must exchange database description packets.
22

Refer to the exhibit. All routes are advertised and fully operational on all routers. Which statement is true about the path that the data will take from router A to router B?

If EIGRP is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between two paths — A, D, B and A, C, B.

If RIPv1 is used with default configurations, the data will be load-balanced on all paths.

If EIGRP and OSPF are both used with default configurations, the data will be sent through paths learned by the OSPF protocol.

If RIPv2 is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between two paths — A, D, B and A, C, D.
23

Refer to the exhibit. A ping between host A and host B is successful, but pings from host A to operational hosts on the Internet fail. What is the reason for this problem?

The FastEthernet interface of R1 is disabled.

One of the default routes is configured incorrectly.

A routing protocol is not configured on both routers.

The default gateway has not been configured on host A.
24

Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?

Router5 flushes the unreachable route from its routing table in 30 seconds.

Router4 will learn about the failed route 30 seconds later in the next periodic update.

Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.

Split horizon will prevent Router4 from fowarding packets to the 10.0.0.0 network until the holddown timer expires.
25
The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result?

IP classless has been disabled on the Suffolk router.

The ip subnet-zero command was not configured on the Suffolk router.

The Richmond router is in a different autonomous system than the Suffolk router.

The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates.
26
A network is using RIP as the routing protocol. The router learns that the same destination can be reached via five different paths. All paths have the same metric, and all routers are using the default operation.

Which statement correctly describes the path used by the router?

It will use the first available path to the destination.

It will use only the first two paths that it learned.

It will use four of the five paths.

It will load-balance using all five paths.
27

Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIP protocol. Devices on the 192.168.1.1 network can ping the S0/0/0 interface on R2 but cannot ping devices on the 192.168.2.1 network.

What is a possible cause of this problem?

The routers are configured with different versions of RIP.

R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.

The R1 configuration should include the no auto-summary command.

The maximum path number has been exceeded.
28

Refer to the exhibit. To implement the RIPv2 protocol, the network administrator runs the commands as displayed. However, the show ip protocol command fails to display any output. How can the administrator solve the problem that is indicated by the lack of output from this command?

Include the default-information originate command.

Include the no auto-summary command.

Specify the network for which RIP routing has to be enabled.

Implement RIPv2 authentication in the network.
29

Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured correctly. The network administrator has configured R1 as shown. Which two facts are true about the forwarding of route information by R1? (Choose two.)

R1 will forward the route information for subnet 192.168.100.0/30.

R1 will not forward route information for subnet 192.168.100.4/30.

R1 will forward the route information with an administrative distance set to 50.

R1 will forward the summarized route information for network 192.168.100.0/24.

R1 will forward route information for subnet 10.10.10.0/30 out the serial interface.
30

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new subnet of 50 hosts to R3. Which subnet address should be used for the new subnet that provides enough addresses while wasting a minimum of addresses?

192.168.1.0/24

192.168.1.48 /28

192.168.1.32/27

192.168.1.64/26
31

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?

Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.

The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boundaries and should be summarized.

Packets routed to the R2 Fast Ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.

The static route will not work correctly.
32

Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are configured with the correct IP addresses and subnet masks. OSPF has been configured as the routing protocol. During troubleshooting, it is determined that hosts on network B can ping the Lo0 interface on R1 but are unable to reach hosts on network A. What is the cause of the problem?

Routers R1 and R2 have incorrect router IDs configured.

Router R1 is unable to form a neighbor relationship with router R2.

Routers R1 and R2 have been configured in different OSPF areas.

The configuration of router R1 fails to include network A in the OSPF routing process.
33
A network administrator needs to configure a single router to load-balance the traffic over unequal cost paths. Which routing protocol should the administrator use?

EIGRP

OSPF

RIPv1

RIPv2
34
A network administrator has been asked to configure a network using a classful IP addressing scheme. Which statement is true about the IP addressing that will be used?

Classful IP addresses can be used only when static routing is configured in the network.

Classful IP addresses allow the network/host boundary to occur at any bit in the 32-bit address.

The subnet mask for classful IP addresses can be determined by the value of the first octet of the IP address.

Classful IP addresses require the subnet mask to be included in the routing updates that are propagated by the classful routing protocols.
35

Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for router R1 is displayed. What action will the router take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.5?

It will drop the packet.

It will forward the packet to interface Serial0/0/0.

It will determine the route for the packet through a routing protocol.

It will forward the packet to the default gateway.
36

Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29 and 10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access each other. What can be the cause of this problem?

Because RIPv1 is a classless protocol, it does not support this access.

RIPv1 does not support discontiguous networks.

RIPv1 does not support load balancing.

RIPv1 does not support automatic summarization.
37

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator successfully pings R1 from R3. Next, the administrator runs the show cdp neighbors command on R3. The output of this command is displayed.

What are two reasons for the absence of R1 in the output? (Choose two.)

There is a Layer 2 connectivity problem between R1 and R3.

The Fa0/0 interface of R1 is configured with an incorrect IP address.

The no cdp run command has been run at R1.

The no cdp enable command has been run at Fa0/1 interface of R3.

R1 is powered off.
38

Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are child routes?

6
39

Refer to the exhibit. The routers are properly configured using a dynamic routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Router A is forwarding data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path?

If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will determine that all paths have equal cost.

If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will update only the A-C-E path in its routing table.

If the network uses the EIGRP routing protocol, router A will determine that path A-D-E has the lowest cost.

If both RIP and EIGRP protocols are configured on router A, the router will use the route information that is learned by the RIP routing protocol.
40

Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run at R1. Which two facts about the newly detected device can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)

ABCD is a router that is connected to R1.

ABCD is a non-CISCO device that is connected to R1.

The device is connected at the Serial0/0/1 interface of R1.

R1 is connected at the S0/0/1 interface of device ABCD.

ABCD does not support switching capability.
41

Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?

The Dijkstra algorithm will calculate the feasible successor.

DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.

Neighbor 172.16.3.2 will be promoted to the feasible successor.

Traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0 network will be dropped immediately due to lack of a feasible successor.
42
What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

It connects multiple IP networks.

It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.

It determines the best path to send packets.

It manages the VLAN database.

It increases the size of the broadcast domain.
43
A network administrator uses the RIP routing protocol to implement routing within an autonomous system. What are two characteristics of this protocol? (Choose two.)

It uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm to determine the best path.

It displays an actual map of the network topology.

It offers rapid convergence in large networks.

It periodically sends complete routing tables to all connected devices.

It is beneficial in complex and hierarchically designed networks.
44
A network is configured with the IP, IPX, and AppleTalk protocols. Which routing protocol is recommended for this network?

RIPv1

RIPv2

EIGRP

OSPF
45

Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this?

The two routers are connected on a multiaccess network.

The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers.

They have different OSPF router IDs.

They have different process IDs.
46

Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?

Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.

The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.

The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.

The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.

The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
47
Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)

They are aware of the complete network topology.

They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.

They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.

They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.

They do not work well in networks that require special hierarchical designs.

They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only.
48

Refer to the exhibit. What action will R2 take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.2.0?

It will drop the packet.

It will forward the packet via the S0/0/0 interface.

It will forward the packet via the Fa0/0 interface.

It will forward the packet to R1.
49
What should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose two.)

OSPF interval timers mismatch

administrative distance mismatch

interface network type mismatch

no loopback interface configured

gateway of last resort not redistributed
50
A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what way might EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route fails?

It broadcasts hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.

It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until a new successor route is found.

It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors.

It will set the metric for the failed route to infinity.

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CCNA 3 – Chapter 5

ccnav4 — Fri, 03 Jul 2009 07:18:41 +0000

1. Which two statements are true about the default operation of STP in a Layer 2 switched environment that has redundant connections between switches? (Choose two.)
• The root switch is the switch with the highest speed ports.
• Decisions on which port to block when two ports have equal cost depend on the port priority and identity.
• All trunking ports are designated and not blocked.
• Root switches have all ports set as root ports.
• Non-root switches each have only one root port.

2. Which two statements describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)
• They are sent out by the root bridge only after the inferior BPDUs are sent.
• They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address.
• Only the root bridge will send out a BID.
• They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge.
• The switch with the fastest processor will have the lowest BID.

3. In which two ways is the information that is contained in BPDUs used by switches? (Choose two.)
• to negotiate a trunk between switches
• to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
• to identify the shortest path to the root bridge
• to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches
• to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree

4. Which two actions does an RSTP edge port take if it receives a BPDU? (Choose two.)
• immediately loses its edge status
• inhibits the generation of a TCN
• goes immediately to a learning state
• disables itself
• becomes a normal spanning-tree port

5. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network have empty MAC tables. STP has been disabled on the switches in the network. How will a broadcast frame that is sent by host PC1 be handled on the network?
• Switch SW1 will block the broadcast and drop the frame.
• Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. This will generate an endless loop in the network.
• Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. All hosts in the network will replay with a unicast frame sent to host PC1.
• Switch SW1 will forward the traffic out all switch ports except the originating port as a unicast frame. All hosts in the network will replay with a unicast frame sent to switch SW1.

6. Which two items are true regarding the spanning-tree portfast command? (Choose two.)
• PortFast is Cisco proprietary.
• PortFast can negatively effect DHCP services.
• PortFast is used to more quickly prevent and eliminate bridging loops.
• Enabling PortFast on trunks that connect to other switches improves convergence.
• If an access port is configured with PortFast, it immediately transitions from a blocking to a forwarding state.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Server sends an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If STP is not enabled, what will be the result of this ARP request?
• Router_1 will drop the broadcast and reply with the MAC address of the next hop router.
• Switch_A will reply with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface.
• Switch_A and Switch_B will continuously flood the message onto the network.
• The message will cycle around the network until its TTL is exceeded.

8. What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?
• election of the root bridge
• blocking of the non-designated ports
• selection of the designated trunk port
• determination of the designated port for each segment

9. How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?
• Configure all the interfaces on the switch as the static root ports.
• Change the BPDU to a lower value than that of the other switches in the network.
• Assign a lower IP address to the switch than that of the other switches in the network.
• Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.

10. Refer to the exhibit. The spanning-tree port priority of each interface is at the default setting. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. What is the effect of the command?
• Spanning tree blocks Gi 0/1 on S3.
• Gi 0/2 on S3 transitions to a root port.
• Port priority makes Gi 0/2 on S1 a root port.
• S4 is already the root bridge, so there are no port changes.

11. What two features of the Spanning-Tree Protocol contribute to the time it takes for a switched network to converge after a topology change occurs? (Choose two.)
• the max-age timer
• the spanning-tree hold down timer
• the forward delay
• the spanning-tree path cost
• the blocking delay

12. In which STP state does a port record MAC addresses but not forward user data?
• blocking
• Learning
• disabling
• listening
• forwarding

13. Which three statements are accurate regarding RSTP and STP? (Choose three.)
• RSTP uses a faster algorithm to determine root ports.
• RSTP introduced the extended system ID to allow for more than 4096 VLANs.
• Both RSTP and STP use the portfast command to allow ports to immediately transition to forwarding state.
• Like STP PortFast, an RSTP edge port that receives a BPDU loses its edge port status immediately and becomes a normal spanning-tree port.
• Configuration commands to establish primary and secondary root bridges are identical for STP and RSTP.
• Because of the format of the BPDU packet, RSTP is backward compatible with STP.

14. What two elements will exist in a converged network with one spanning tree? (Choose two.)
• one root bridge per network
• all non-designated ports forwarding
• one root port per non-root bridge
• multiple designated ports per segment
• one designated port per network

15. Which statement or set of paired statements correctly compares STP with RSTP?
• STP and RSTP use the same BPDU format.
• STP specifies backup ports. RSTP has only root ports, alternate ports, and designated ports.
• STP port states are independent of port roles. RSTP ties together the port state and port role.
• STP waits for the network to converge before placing ports into forwarding state. RSTP places alternate ports into forwarding state immediately.

16. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output shown?
Two hosts communicating between ports Fa 0/2 and Fa 0/4 have a cost of 38.
• The priority was statically configured to identify the root.
• STP is disabled on this switch.
• The timers have been altered to reduce convergence time.

17. Which two criteria does a switch use to select the root bridge? (Choose two.)
• bridge priority
• switching speed
• number of ports
• base MAC address
• switch location
• memory size

18. What three link types have been defined for Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol? (Choose three.)
• Shared
• end-to-end
• edge-type
• boundary-type
• point-to-many
• point-to-point

19. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) role is assigned to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
• alternate
• backup
• Designated
• root

20. When PVST+ was developed, the Bridge ID was modified to include which information?
• bridge priority
• MAC address
• protocol
• VLAN ID

CCNA 3 – Chapter 4

ccnav4 — Fri, 03 Jul 2009 07:15:56 +0000

1. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other switches shown in the exhibit. What are two possible reasons for this? (Choose two.)
• Switch2 is in transparent mode.
• Switch1 is in client mode.
• Switch1 is using VTP version 1 and Switch2 is using VTP version 2.
• Switch2 is in server mode.
• Switch1 is in a different management domain.
• Switch1 has no VLANs.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Switches SW1 and SW2 are interconnected via a trunk link but failed to exchange VLAN information. The network administrator issued the show vtp status command to troubleshoot the problem. On the basis of the output provided, what could be done to fix the problem?
• The switches must be interconnected via access link.
• Switch SW2 must be configured as a VTP client.
• Both switches must be configured as VTP clients.
• Both switches must be configured with the same VTP revision number.
• The switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name.

3. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
• If this switch is added to an established network, the other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain will consider their own
• VLAN information to be more recent than the VLAN information advertised by this switch.
• This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
• This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
• This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.
• This switch is configured to allows the network manager to maximize bandwidth by restricting traffic to specific network devices.

4. Which two statements describe VTP transparent mode operation? (Choose two.)
• Transparent mode switches can create VLAN management information.
• Transparent mode switches can add VLANs of local significance only.
• Transparent mode switches pass any VLAN management information that they receive to other switches.
• Transparent mode switches can adopt VLAN management changes that are received from other switches.
• Transparent mode switches originate updates about the status of their VLANS and inform other switches about that status.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Switch2 was previously used in a lab environment and has been added to the production network in server mode. The lab and production networks use the same VTP domain name, so the network administrator made no configuration changes to Switch2 before adding it to the production network. The lab domain has a higher revision number. After Switch2 was added to the production network, many computers lost network connectivity. What is the quickest way to solve the problem?
• Reset the revision number on Switch2 with either the delete VTP command or by changing the domain name and then changing it back.
• Change Switch1 to transparent VTP mode to reclaim all VLANs in vlan.dat, and then change back to server mode.
• Change Switch2 to client mode so the VLANs will automatically repopulate.
• Re-enter all appropriate VLANs, except VLAN 1, manually on Switch1 so that they repropagate throughout the network.

6. What causes a VTP configured switch to issue a summary advertisement?
• A new host has been attached to a switch in the management domain.
• A port on a switch in the management domain has changed to blocking mode.
• A five-minute update timer has elapsed.
• The advertisement revision number has reached n+1.

7. Which two statements describe VTP client mode operation. (Choose two.)
• can add VLANs of local significance only
• can only adopt VLAN management changes
• can create and adopt updated VLAN management information
• can only pass VLAN management information without adopting changes
• can add VLANs to domain
• cannot add VLANs

8 Which statement is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?
• VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.
• VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.
• A switch configured for VTP can belong to more than one VTP domain.
• VTP dynamically communicates VLAN additions, deletions and modifications to all switches in the same VTP domain.
• VTP advertisements are passed over access links to other switches.

9. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the VTP domain are new. Switch SW1 is configured as a VTP server, switches SW2 and SW4 are configured as VTP clients, and switch SW3 is configured in VTP transparent mode. Which switch or switches receive VTP updates and synchronize their VLAN configuration based on those updates?
• All switches receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.
• Only switch SW2 receives updates and synchronizes VLAN information.
• SW3 and SW4 receive updates, but only switch SW4 synchronizes VLAN information.
• Only switches SW3 and SW4 receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.

10. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be learned from the output provided?
• It verifies the configured VTP password.
• It verifies the VTP domain is configured to use VTP version 2.
• It verifies VTP advertisements are being exchanged.
• It verifies the VTP domain name is V1.

11. Which statement is true about the VTP pruning process?
• VTP pruning automatically updates all switches within the VTP domain with VLAN information.
• VTP pruning updates all switches within the VTP domain with information about pruning-eligible VLANs.
• VTP pruning updates all switches within the VTP domain with information about pruning-ineligible VLANs.
• VTP pruning prevents flooded traffic from crossing trunk links to switches that do not need to process the flood traffic.

12. Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?
• VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches.
• Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode switches.
• VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.
• There are no ports assigned to the new VLAN on the other switches.
• Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements.

13. What does a client mode switch in a VTP management domain do when it receives a summary advertisement with a revision number higher than its current revision number?
• It suspends forwarding until a subset advertisement update arrives.
• It issues an advertisement request for new VLAN information.
• It increments the revision number and forwards it to other switches.
• It deletes the VLANs not included in the summary advertisement.
• It issues summary advertisements to advise other switches of status changes.

14. Which three VTP parameters must be identical on all switches to participate in the same VTP domain? (Choose three.)
• revision number
• domain name
• pruning
• mode
• domain password
• version number

15. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network participate in the same VTP domain. What happens when the new switch SW2 with a default configuration and revision number of 0 is inserted in the existing VTP domain Lab Network?
• The switch operates as a VTP client.
• switch operates in VTP transparent mode.
• The switch operates as a VTP server and deletes the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.
• The switch operates as a VTP server, but does not impact the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.

16. Refer to the exhibit. Switch S1 is in VTP server mode. Switches S2 and S3 are in client mode. An administrator accidentally disconnects the cable from F0/1 on S2. What will the effect be?
• S2 loses all VLANs until the cable is reconnected.
• S2 automatically transitions to VTP transparent mode.
• S2 does not send a VTP request advertisement unless it is reloaded.
• S2 automatically sends a VTP request advertisement to 172.17.99.11 when the cable is reconnected.

17. Which two statements are true about the implementation of VTP? (Choose two.)
• Switches must be connected via trunks.
• The VTP domain name is case sensitive.
• Transparent mode switches cannot be configured with new VLANs.
• The VTP password is mandatory and case sensitive.
• Switches that use VTP must have the same switch name.

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