CCNA2 FINAL F Shared by ccna4u.org

I received from a member by email, Let’s discuss together to find the correct answer.

DOWNLOAD
Take Assessment – ERouting Practice Final Exam – CCNA Exploration: Routing Protocols and Concepts (Version 4.0)
1

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown, and all interfaces are functioning correctly. A ping from R1 to 172.16.1.1 fails. What could be the cause of this problem?

The serial interface on R1 is configured incorrectly.

The default route is configured incorrectly.

The default-information originate command must be issued on R1.

Autosummarization must be disabled on R1.

2

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?

The packet will be dropped.

The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.

The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0.

The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1.
www.ccna4u.org

3
Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.)

the IP address of the first FastEthernet interface

the highest IP address of any logical interface

the highest IP address of any physical interface

the default gateway IP address

the priority value of 1 on any physical interface
4
What are two reasons for the occurrence of a routing loop? (Choose two.)

slow convergence

incorrectly configured static routes

routes that are learned via two routing protocols

static and dynamic routing being used on the same router

lack of a default route on the router that connects to the Internet

5

The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?

The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that subnetwork.

The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.

The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the address for Serial0 of Router2.

The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
6

Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the highlighted output?

R1 is originating the route 172.30.200.32/28.

Automatic summarization is disabled.

The 172.30.200.16/28 network is one hop away from R1.

A classful routing protocol is being used.
7

Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?

Router1

Router2

Router3

Router4
8

Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is configured properly and all interfaces are functional. Router R1 has been installed recently. Host A is unable to ping host B.

Which procedure can resolve this problem?

Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of the serial interface on R1.

Configure a default route on R1 with the exit interface Fa0/0 on R1.

Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of S0/0/0 on R2.

Configure a default route on R1 using the IP address of Fa0/0 on R2.
9

Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?

172.16.0.0/8

172.16.0.0/10

172.16.0.0/13

172.16.0.0/20

172.16.0.0/24
10

Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?

All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.

Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.

The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.

A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.
11
Which two statements are true about the startup configuration in a router? (Choose two.)

The router uses the startup configuration file to start POST.

If the Cisco IOS cannot be found, the router enters setup mode.

The bootstrap program searches for the startup configuration file in NVRAM.

If the startup config file cannot be found, the router enters ROMMON mode.

The router searches for a TFTP server if the startup configuration file is absent at the default location.
12
Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running the same routing protocol. Based on the exhibit and its displayed commands, which statement is true?

The wildcard mask is incorrectly configured.

A default route must be configured on every router.

Routers B, C, and D have no access to the Internet.

The link to the ISP is not advertised by the routing protocol process.

13
When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot system command?

ROM, TFTP server, flash

flash, TFTP server, ROM

flash, NVRAM, TFTP server

NVRAM, TFTP server, flash
14

Refer to the exhibit. Although both the routers can ping the serial interface of their neighbors, they are unable to ping the Ethernet interfaces of other routers. Which two statements are true for this network? (Choose two.)

The administrative distance has been set to 50 on both routers.

R2 is learning about network 192.168.1.0.

R1 is learning about network 192.168.2.0.

The network 10.1.1.0 command has not been run on both routers.

Autosummarization is enabled on both routers.
15
Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?

The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table.

The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in the routing table.

The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and installs only that route in the routing table.

The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one, holding the others in reserve in case the primary route goes down.

The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces.

Take Assessment – ERouting Practice Final Exam – CCNA Exploration: Routing Protocols and Concepts (Version 4.0)
Time Remaining:

16
What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)

tests Layer 2 connectivity

provides a layer of security

operates a OSI layers 2 and 3

enabled by default on each interface

used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues

provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled

17
What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet?

It is used to confirm the receipt of LSUs.

It is used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers.

It is used by the receiving routers to request more information about any entry in the DBD.

It is used to check the database synchronization between routers.
18
What is the first step OSPF and IS-IS routers take in building a shortest path first database?

learn about directly connected networks

send hello to discover neighbors and form adjacencies

choose successors and feasible successors to populate the topology table

flood LSPs to all neighbors informing them of all known networks and their link states
19

Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?

The default gateway is incorrect.

The address is in the wrong subnet.

The host address and default gateway are swapped.

192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet.
20

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.)

Router1 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network

Router1 is missing a route to the 192.168.1.0 network

Router2 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network

Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network

Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network

Router3 is missing a route to the 192.168.0.0 network
21
What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)

The routers must elect a designated router.

The routers must agree on the network type.

The routers must use the same dead interval.

The routers must exchange link state requests.

The routers must exchange database description packets.
22

Refer to the exhibit. All routes are advertised and fully operational on all routers. Which statement is true about the path that the data will take from router A to router B?

If EIGRP is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between two paths — A, D, B and A, C, B.

If RIPv1 is used with default configurations, the data will be load-balanced on all paths.

If EIGRP and OSPF are both used with default configurations, the data will be sent through paths learned by the OSPF protocol.

If RIPv2 is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between two paths — A, D, B and A, C, D.
23

Refer to the exhibit. A ping between host A and host B is successful, but pings from host A to operational hosts on the Internet fail. What is the reason for this problem?

The FastEthernet interface of R1 is disabled.

One of the default routes is configured incorrectly.

A routing protocol is not configured on both routers.

The default gateway has not been configured on host A.
24

Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?

Router5 flushes the unreachable route from its routing table in 30 seconds.

Router4 will learn about the failed route 30 seconds later in the next periodic update.

Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.

Split horizon will prevent Router4 from fowarding packets to the 10.0.0.0 network until the holddown timer expires.
25
The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result?

IP classless has been disabled on the Suffolk router.

The ip subnet-zero command was not configured on the Suffolk router.

The Richmond router is in a different autonomous system than the Suffolk router.

The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates.
26
A network is using RIP as the routing protocol. The router learns that the same destination can be reached via five different paths. All paths have the same metric, and all routers are using the default operation.

Which statement correctly describes the path used by the router?

It will use the first available path to the destination.

It will use only the first two paths that it learned.

It will use four of the five paths.

It will load-balance using all five paths.
27

Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIP protocol. Devices on the 192.168.1.1 network can ping the S0/0/0 interface on R2 but cannot ping devices on the 192.168.2.1 network.

What is a possible cause of this problem?

The routers are configured with different versions of RIP.

R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.

The R1 configuration should include the no auto-summary command.

The maximum path number has been exceeded.
28

Refer to the exhibit. To implement the RIPv2 protocol, the network administrator runs the commands as displayed. However, the show ip protocol command fails to display any output. How can the administrator solve the problem that is indicated by the lack of output from this command?

Include the default-information originate command.

Include the no auto-summary command.

Specify the network for which RIP routing has to be enabled.

Implement RIPv2 authentication in the network.
29

Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured correctly. The network administrator has configured R1 as shown. Which two facts are true about the forwarding of route information by R1? (Choose two.)

R1 will forward the route information for subnet 192.168.100.0/30.

R1 will not forward route information for subnet 192.168.100.4/30.

R1 will forward the route information with an administrative distance set to 50.

R1 will forward the summarized route information for network 192.168.100.0/24.

R1 will forward route information for subnet 10.10.10.0/30 out the serial interface.
30

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new subnet of 50 hosts to R3. Which subnet address should be used for the new subnet that provides enough addresses while wasting a minimum of addresses?

192.168.1.0/24

192.168.1.48 /28

192.168.1.32/27

192.168.1.64/26
31

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?

Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.

The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boundaries and should be summarized.

Packets routed to the R2 Fast Ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.

The static route will not work correctly.
32

Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are configured with the correct IP addresses and subnet masks. OSPF has been configured as the routing protocol. During troubleshooting, it is determined that hosts on network B can ping the Lo0 interface on R1 but are unable to reach hosts on network A. What is the cause of the problem?

Routers R1 and R2 have incorrect router IDs configured.

Router R1 is unable to form a neighbor relationship with router R2.

Routers R1 and R2 have been configured in different OSPF areas.

The configuration of router R1 fails to include network A in the OSPF routing process.
33
A network administrator needs to configure a single router to load-balance the traffic over unequal cost paths. Which routing protocol should the administrator use?

EIGRP

OSPF

RIPv1

RIPv2
34
A network administrator has been asked to configure a network using a classful IP addressing scheme. Which statement is true about the IP addressing that will be used?

Classful IP addresses can be used only when static routing is configured in the network.

Classful IP addresses allow the network/host boundary to occur at any bit in the 32-bit address.

The subnet mask for classful IP addresses can be determined by the value of the first octet of the IP address.

Classful IP addresses require the subnet mask to be included in the routing updates that are propagated by the classful routing protocols.
35

Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for router R1 is displayed. What action will the router take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.5?

It will drop the packet.

It will forward the packet to interface Serial0/0/0.

It will determine the route for the packet through a routing protocol.

It will forward the packet to the default gateway.
36

Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29 and 10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access each other. What can be the cause of this problem?

Because RIPv1 is a classless protocol, it does not support this access.

RIPv1 does not support discontiguous networks.

RIPv1 does not support load balancing.

RIPv1 does not support automatic summarization.
37

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator successfully pings R1 from R3. Next, the administrator runs the show cdp neighbors command on R3. The output of this command is displayed.

What are two reasons for the absence of R1 in the output? (Choose two.)

There is a Layer 2 connectivity problem between R1 and R3.

The Fa0/0 interface of R1 is configured with an incorrect IP address.

The no cdp run command has been run at R1.

The no cdp enable command has been run at Fa0/1 interface of R3.

R1 is powered off.
38

Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are child routes?

1

3

4

6
39

Refer to the exhibit. The routers are properly configured using a dynamic routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Router A is forwarding data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path?

If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will determine that all paths have equal cost.

If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will update only the A-C-E path in its routing table.

If the network uses the EIGRP routing protocol, router A will determine that path A-D-E has the lowest cost.

If both RIP and EIGRP protocols are configured on router A, the router will use the route information that is learned by the RIP routing protocol.
40

Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run at R1. Which two facts about the newly detected device can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)

ABCD is a router that is connected to R1.

ABCD is a non-CISCO device that is connected to R1.

The device is connected at the Serial0/0/1 interface of R1.

R1 is connected at the S0/0/1 interface of device ABCD.

ABCD does not support switching capability.
41

Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?

The Dijkstra algorithm will calculate the feasible successor.

DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.

Neighbor 172.16.3.2 will be promoted to the feasible successor.

Traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0 network will be dropped immediately due to lack of a feasible successor.
42
What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

It connects multiple IP networks.

It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.

It determines the best path to send packets.

It manages the VLAN database.

It increases the size of the broadcast domain.
43
A network administrator uses the RIP routing protocol to implement routing within an autonomous system. What are two characteristics of this protocol? (Choose two.)

It uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm to determine the best path.

It displays an actual map of the network topology.

It offers rapid convergence in large networks.

It periodically sends complete routing tables to all connected devices.

It is beneficial in complex and hierarchically designed networks.
44
A network is configured with the IP, IPX, and AppleTalk protocols. Which routing protocol is recommended for this network?

RIPv1

RIPv2

EIGRP

OSPF
45

Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this?

The two routers are connected on a multiaccess network.

The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers.

They have different OSPF router IDs.

They have different process IDs.
46

Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?

Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.

The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.

The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.

The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.

The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
47
Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)

They are aware of the complete network topology.

They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.

They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.

They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.

They do not work well in networks that require special hierarchical designs.

They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only.
48

Refer to the exhibit. What action will R2 take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.2.0?

It will drop the packet.

It will forward the packet via the S0/0/0 interface.

It will forward the packet via the Fa0/0 interface.

It will forward the packet to R1.
49
What should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose two.)

OSPF interval timers mismatch

administrative distance mismatch

interface network type mismatch

no loopback interface configured

gateway of last resort not redistributed
50
A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what way might EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route fails?

It broadcasts hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.

It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until a new successor route is found.

It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors.

It will set the metric for the failed route to infinity.

www.ccna4u.org

Related Posts by Categories

CCNA2

• CCNA2 – Final (E)
• CCNA2 Final Exam version 4.0 (100/100)
• CCNA 2 v4.0 Final Exam Answers
• CCNA 2 – Final Exam (D) – Lastest in July
• CCNA4 Skill (Full Questions and answers) + CCNA 1-2-3-4 FINAL (Lastest)
• CCNA 2 – Final 94,8% – New
• CCNA 2 – Final Exam (B)
• CCNA 2 – Final Exam (A)
• CCNA2 FINAL2 (new 25/12/08)
• CCNA 2 – Final Exam (B)
• CCNA v4 – E2 – Module 3(100%)
• CCNA v4 – E2 – Module 2(97%)
• CCNA v4 – E2 – Module 4(100%)
• CCNA v4 – E2 – Module 5(100%)
• CCNA v4 – E2 – Module 7(95%)
• CCNA v4 – E2 – Module 9(100%)
• CCNA v4 – E2 – Module 8(100%)
• CCNA v4 – E2 – Module 10(100%)
• CCNA v4 – E2 – Module 11(97%)

CCNA2 FINAL

• CCNA2 – Final (E)
• CCNA2 Final Exam version 4.0 (100/100)
• CCNA 2 v4.0 Final Exam Answers
• CCNA 2 – Final Exam (D) – Lastest in July
• CCNA 2 – Final 94,8% – New
• ccna2 final version 4.0(97,2%)
• CCNA 2 – Final Exam (B)
• CCNA 2 – Final Exam (A)
• CCNA2 FINAL2 (new 25/12/08)
• CCNA 2 – Final Exam (B)

CCNA 3 – Chapter 5

1. Which two statements are true about the default operation of STP in a Layer 2 switched environment that has redundant connections between switches? (Choose two.)
• The root switch is the switch with the highest speed ports.
• Decisions on which port to block when two ports have equal cost depend on the port priority and identity.
• All trunking ports are designated and not blocked.
• Root switches have all ports set as root ports.
• Non-root switches each have only one root port.

2. Which two statements describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)
• They are sent out by the root bridge only after the inferior BPDUs are sent.
• They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address.
• Only the root bridge will send out a BID.
• They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge.
• The switch with the fastest processor will have the lowest BID.

3. In which two ways is the information that is contained in BPDUs used by switches? (Choose two.)
• to negotiate a trunk between switches
• to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
• to identify the shortest path to the root bridge
• to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches
• to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree

4. Which two actions does an RSTP edge port take if it receives a BPDU? (Choose two.)
• immediately loses its edge status
• inhibits the generation of a TCN
• goes immediately to a learning state
• disables itself
• becomes a normal spanning-tree port

5. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network have empty MAC tables. STP has been disabled on the switches in the network. How will a broadcast frame that is sent by host PC1 be handled on the network?
• Switch SW1 will block the broadcast and drop the frame.
• Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. This will generate an endless loop in the network.
• Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. All hosts in the network will replay with a unicast frame sent to host PC1.
• Switch SW1 will forward the traffic out all switch ports except the originating port as a unicast frame. All hosts in the network will replay with a unicast frame sent to switch SW1.

6. Which two items are true regarding the spanning-tree portfast command? (Choose two.)
• PortFast is Cisco proprietary.
• PortFast can negatively effect DHCP services.
• PortFast is used to more quickly prevent and eliminate bridging loops.
• Enabling PortFast on trunks that connect to other switches improves convergence.
• If an access port is configured with PortFast, it immediately transitions from a blocking to a forwarding state.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Server sends an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If STP is not enabled, what will be the result of this ARP request?
• Router_1 will drop the broadcast and reply with the MAC address of the next hop router.
• Switch_A will reply with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface.
• Switch_A and Switch_B will continuously flood the message onto the network.
• The message will cycle around the network until its TTL is exceeded.

8. What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?
• election of the root bridge
• blocking of the non-designated ports
• selection of the designated trunk port
• determination of the designated port for each segment

9. How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?
• Configure all the interfaces on the switch as the static root ports.
• Change the BPDU to a lower value than that of the other switches in the network.
• Assign a lower IP address to the switch than that of the other switches in the network.
• Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.

10. Refer to the exhibit. The spanning-tree port priority of each interface is at the default setting. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. What is the effect of the command?
• Spanning tree blocks Gi 0/1 on S3.
• Gi 0/2 on S3 transitions to a root port.
• Port priority makes Gi 0/2 on S1 a root port.
• S4 is already the root bridge, so there are no port changes.

11. What two features of the Spanning-Tree Protocol contribute to the time it takes for a switched network to converge after a topology change occurs? (Choose two.)
• the max-age timer
• the spanning-tree hold down timer
• the forward delay
• the spanning-tree path cost
• the blocking delay

12. In which STP state does a port record MAC addresses but not forward user data?
• blocking
• Learning
• disabling
• listening
• forwarding

13. Which three statements are accurate regarding RSTP and STP? (Choose three.)
• RSTP uses a faster algorithm to determine root ports.
• RSTP introduced the extended system ID to allow for more than 4096 VLANs.
• Both RSTP and STP use the portfast command to allow ports to immediately transition to forwarding state.
• Like STP PortFast, an RSTP edge port that receives a BPDU loses its edge port status immediately and becomes a normal spanning-tree port.
• Configuration commands to establish primary and secondary root bridges are identical for STP and RSTP.
• Because of the format of the BPDU packet, RSTP is backward compatible with STP.

14. What two elements will exist in a converged network with one spanning tree? (Choose two.)
• one root bridge per network
• all non-designated ports forwarding
• one root port per non-root bridge
• multiple designated ports per segment
• one designated port per network

15. Which statement or set of paired statements correctly compares STP with RSTP?
• STP and RSTP use the same BPDU format.
• STP specifies backup ports. RSTP has only root ports, alternate ports, and designated ports.
• STP port states are independent of port roles. RSTP ties together the port state and port role.
• STP waits for the network to converge before placing ports into forwarding state. RSTP places alternate ports into forwarding state immediately.

16. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output shown?
Two hosts communicating between ports Fa 0/2 and Fa 0/4 have a cost of 38.
• The priority was statically configured to identify the root.
• STP is disabled on this switch.
• The timers have been altered to reduce convergence time.

17. Which two criteria does a switch use to select the root bridge? (Choose two.)
• bridge priority
• switching speed
• number of ports
• base MAC address
• switch location
• memory size

18. What three link types have been defined for Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol? (Choose three.)
• Shared
• end-to-end
• edge-type
• boundary-type
• point-to-many
• point-to-point

19. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) role is assigned to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
• alternate
• backup
• Designated
• root

20. When PVST+ was developed, the Bridge ID was modified to include which information?
• bridge priority
• MAC address
• protocol
• VLAN ID

CCNA 3 – Chapter 4

1. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other switches shown in the exhibit. What are two possible reasons for this? (Choose two.)
• Switch2 is in transparent mode.
• Switch1 is in client mode.
• Switch1 is using VTP version 1 and Switch2 is using VTP version 2.
• Switch2 is in server mode.
• Switch1 is in a different management domain.
• Switch1 has no VLANs.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Switches SW1 and SW2 are interconnected via a trunk link but failed to exchange VLAN information. The network administrator issued the show vtp status command to troubleshoot the problem. On the basis of the output provided, what could be done to fix the problem?
• The switches must be interconnected via access link.
• Switch SW2 must be configured as a VTP client.
• Both switches must be configured as VTP clients.
• Both switches must be configured with the same VTP revision number.
• The switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name.

3. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
• If this switch is added to an established network, the other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain will consider their own
• VLAN information to be more recent than the VLAN information advertised by this switch.
• This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
• This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
• This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.
• This switch is configured to allows the network manager to maximize bandwidth by restricting traffic to specific network devices.

4. Which two statements describe VTP transparent mode operation? (Choose two.)
• Transparent mode switches can create VLAN management information.
• Transparent mode switches can add VLANs of local significance only.
• Transparent mode switches pass any VLAN management information that they receive to other switches.
• Transparent mode switches can adopt VLAN management changes that are received from other switches.
• Transparent mode switches originate updates about the status of their VLANS and inform other switches about that status.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Switch2 was previously used in a lab environment and has been added to the production network in server mode. The lab and production networks use the same VTP domain name, so the network administrator made no configuration changes to Switch2 before adding it to the production network. The lab domain has a higher revision number. After Switch2 was added to the production network, many computers lost network connectivity. What is the quickest way to solve the problem?
• Reset the revision number on Switch2 with either the delete VTP command or by changing the domain name and then changing it back.
• Change Switch1 to transparent VTP mode to reclaim all VLANs in vlan.dat, and then change back to server mode.
• Change Switch2 to client mode so the VLANs will automatically repopulate.
• Re-enter all appropriate VLANs, except VLAN 1, manually on Switch1 so that they repropagate throughout the network.

6. What causes a VTP configured switch to issue a summary advertisement?
• A new host has been attached to a switch in the management domain.
• A port on a switch in the management domain has changed to blocking mode.
• A five-minute update timer has elapsed.
• The advertisement revision number has reached n+1.

7. Which two statements describe VTP client mode operation. (Choose two.)
• can add VLANs of local significance only
• can only adopt VLAN management changes
• can create and adopt updated VLAN management information
• can only pass VLAN management information without adopting changes
• can add VLANs to domain
• cannot add VLANs

8 Which statement is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?
• VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.
• VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.
• A switch configured for VTP can belong to more than one VTP domain.
• VTP dynamically communicates VLAN additions, deletions and modifications to all switches in the same VTP domain.
• VTP advertisements are passed over access links to other switches.

9. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the VTP domain are new. Switch SW1 is configured as a VTP server, switches SW2 and SW4 are configured as VTP clients, and switch SW3 is configured in VTP transparent mode. Which switch or switches receive VTP updates and synchronize their VLAN configuration based on those updates?
• All switches receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.
• Only switch SW2 receives updates and synchronizes VLAN information.
• SW3 and SW4 receive updates, but only switch SW4 synchronizes VLAN information.
• Only switches SW3 and SW4 receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.

10. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be learned from the output provided?
• It verifies the configured VTP password.
• It verifies the VTP domain is configured to use VTP version 2.
• It verifies VTP advertisements are being exchanged.
• It verifies the VTP domain name is V1.

11. Which statement is true about the VTP pruning process?
• VTP pruning automatically updates all switches within the VTP domain with VLAN information.
• VTP pruning updates all switches within the VTP domain with information about pruning-eligible VLANs.
• VTP pruning updates all switches within the VTP domain with information about pruning-ineligible VLANs.
• VTP pruning prevents flooded traffic from crossing trunk links to switches that do not need to process the flood traffic.

12. Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?
• VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches.
• Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode switches.
• VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.
• There are no ports assigned to the new VLAN on the other switches.
• Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements.

13. What does a client mode switch in a VTP management domain do when it receives a summary advertisement with a revision number higher than its current revision number?
• It suspends forwarding until a subset advertisement update arrives.
• It issues an advertisement request for new VLAN information.
• It increments the revision number and forwards it to other switches.
• It deletes the VLANs not included in the summary advertisement.
• It issues summary advertisements to advise other switches of status changes.

14. Which three VTP parameters must be identical on all switches to participate in the same VTP domain? (Choose three.)
• revision number
• domain name
• pruning
• mode
• domain password
• version number

15. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network participate in the same VTP domain. What happens when the new switch SW2 with a default configuration and revision number of 0 is inserted in the existing VTP domain Lab Network?
• The switch operates as a VTP client.
• switch operates in VTP transparent mode.
• The switch operates as a VTP server and deletes the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.
• The switch operates as a VTP server, but does not impact the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.

16. Refer to the exhibit. Switch S1 is in VTP server mode. Switches S2 and S3 are in client mode. An administrator accidentally disconnects the cable from F0/1 on S2. What will the effect be?
• S2 loses all VLANs until the cable is reconnected.
• S2 automatically transitions to VTP transparent mode.
• S2 does not send a VTP request advertisement unless it is reloaded.
• S2 automatically sends a VTP request advertisement to 172.17.99.11 when the cable is reconnected.

17. Which two statements are true about the implementation of VTP? (Choose two.)
• Switches must be connected via trunks.
• The VTP domain name is case sensitive.
• Transparent mode switches cannot be configured with new VLANs.
• The VTP password is mandatory and case sensitive.
• Switches that use VTP must have the same switch name.

CCNA 3 – Chapter 3

1. What statement about the 802.1q trunking protocol is true?
• 802.1q is Cisco proprietary.
• 802.1q frames are mapped to VLANs by MAC address.
• 802.1q does NOT require the FCS of the original frame to be recalculated.
• 802.1q will not perform operations on frames that are forwarded out access ports.

2. Which two statements describe the benefits of VLANs? (Choose two.)
• VLANs improve network performance by regulating flow control and window size.
• VLANs enable switches to route packets to remote networks via VLAN ID filtering.
• VLANs reduce network cost by reducing the number of physical ports required on switches.
• VLANs improve network security by isolating users that have access to sensitive data and applications.
• VLANs divide a network into smaller logical networks, resulting in lower susceptibility to broadcast storms.

3. What are two characteristics of VLAN1 in a default switch configuration? (Choose two.)
• VLAN1 should renamed.
• VLAN 1 is the management VLAN.
• All switch ports are members of VLAN1.
• Only switch port 0/1 is assigned to VLAN1.
• Links between switches must be members of VLAN1.

4. Refer to the exhibit. SW1 and SW2 are new switches being installed in the topology shown in the exhibit. Interface Fa0/1 on switch SW1 has been configured with trunk mode “on”. Which statement is true about forming a trunk link between the switches SW1 and SW2?
• Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 will negotiate to become a trunk link if it supports DTP.
• Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 can only become a trunk link if statically configured as a trunk.
• Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link if the neighboring interface is configured in nonegotiate mode.
• Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link automatically with no consideration of the configuration on the neighboring interface.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Computer 1 sends a frame to computer 4. On which links along the path between computer 1 and computer 4 will a VLAN ID tag be included with the frame?
• A
• A, B
• A, B, D, G
• A, D, F
• C, E
• C, E, F

6. The network administrator wants to separate hosts in Building A into two VLANs numbered 20 and 30. Which two statements are true concerning VLAN configuration? (Choose two.)
• The VLANs may be named.
• VLAN information is saved in the startup configuration.
• Non-default VLANs created manually must use the extended range VLAN numbers.
• The network administrator may create the VLANs in either global configuration mode or VLAN database mode.
• Both VLANs may be named BUILDING_A to distinguish them from other VLANs in different geographical locations.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn regarding the switch that produced the output shown? (Choose two.)
• The network administrator configured VLANs 1002-1005.
• The VLANs are in the active state and are in the process of negotiating configuration parameters.
• A FDDI trunk has been configured on this switch.
• The command switchport access vlan 20 was entered in interface configuration mode for Fast Ethernet interface 0/1.
• Devices attached to ports fa0/5 through fa0/8 cannot communicate with devices attached to ports fa0/9 through fa0/12 without the use of a Layer 3 device.

8. What happens to the member ports of a VLAN when the VLAN is deleted?
• The ports cannot communicate with other ports.
• The ports default back to the management VLAN.
• The ports automatically become a part of VLAN1.
• The ports remain a part of that VLAN until the switch is rebooted. They then become members of the management VLAN.

9. A network administrator is removing several VLANs from a switch. When the administrator enters the no vlan 1 command, an error is received. Why did this command generate an error?
• VLAN 1 can never be deleted.
• VLAN 1 can only be deleted by deleting the vlan.dat file.
• VLAN 1 can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from it.
• VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its responsibilities.

10. What is the effect of the switchport mode dynamic desirable command?
• DTP cannot negotiate the trunk since the native VLAN is not the default VLAN.
• The remote connected interface cannot negotiate a trunk unless it is also configured as dynamic desirable.
• The connected devices dynamically determine when data for multiple VLANs must be transmitted across the link and bring the trunk up as needed.
• A trunk link is formed if the remote connected device is configured with the switchport mode dynamic auto or switchport mode trunk commands.

11. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited configurations do not allow the switches to form a trunk. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
• Cisco switches only support the ISL trunking protocol.
• The trunk cannot be negotiated with both ends set to auto.
• By default, Switch1 will only allow VLAN 5 across the link.
• A common native VLAN should have been configured on the switches.

12. Switch port fa0/1 was manually configured as a trunk, but now it will be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/1?
• Disable DTP.
• Delete any VLANs currently being trunked through port Fa0/1.
• Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to default.
• Enter the switchport mode access command in interface configuration mode.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Computer B is unable to communicate with computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
• The link between the switches is up but not trunked.
• VLAN 3 is not an allowed VLAN to enter the trunk between the switches.
• The router is not properly configured to route traffic between the VLANs.
• Computer D does not have a proper address for the VLAN 3 address space.

14. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2 and assigned hosts on the IP addresses of the VLAN in the 10.1.50.0/24 subnet range. Computer A can communicate with computer B, but not with computer C or computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
• There is a native VLAN mismatch.
• The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked.
• The router is not properly configured for inter-VLAN routing.
• VLAN 50 is not allowed to entering the trunk between Switch1 and Switch2.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning interface Fa0/5?
• The default native VLAN is being used.
• The trunking mode is set to auto.
• Trunking can occur with non-Cisco switches.
• VLAN information about the interface encapsulates the Ethernet frames.

16. What statements describe how hosts on VLANs communicate?
• Hosts on different VLANs use VTP to negotiate a trunk.
• Hosts on different VLANs communicate through routers.
• Hosts on different VLANs should be in the same IP network.
• Hosts on different VLANs examine VLAN ID in the frame tagging to determine if the frame for their network.

• 17. Refer to the exhibit. How far is a broadcast frame that is sent by computer A propagated in the LAN domain?
• none of the computers will receive the broadcast frame
• computer A, computer B, computer C
• computer A, computer D, computer G
• computer B, computer C
• computer D, computer G
• computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E, computer F, computer G, computer H, computer I

18. What is a valid consideration for planning VLAN traffic across multiple switches?
• Configuring interswitch connections as trunks will cause all hosts on any VLAN to receive broadcasts from the other VLANs.
• A trunk connection is affected by broadcast storms on any particular VLAN that is carried by that trunk.
• Restricting trunk connections between switches to a single VLAN will improve efficiency of port usage.
• Carrying all required VLANs on a single access port will ensure proper traffic separation.

19. Which two statements about the 802.1q trunking protocol are true? (Choose two.)
• 802.1q is Cisco proprietary.
• 802.1q frames are mapped to VLANs by MAC address.
• If 802.1q is used on a frame, the FCS must be recalculated.
• 802.1q will not perform operations on frames that are forwarded out access ports.
• 802.1q allows the encapsulation of the original frame to identify the VLAN from which a frame originated.

20. What switch port modes will allow a switch to successfully form a trunking link if the neighboring switch port is in “dynamic desirable” mode?
• dynamic desirable mode
• on or dynamic desirable mode
• on, auto, or dynamic desirable mode
• on, auto, dynamic desirable, or nonegotiate mode

21. Refer to the exhibit. Company HR is adding PC4, a specialized application workstation, to a new company office. The company will add a switch, S3, connected via a trunk link to S2, another switch. For security reasons the new PC will reside in the HR VLAN, VLAN 10. The new office will use the 172.17.11.0/24 subnet. After installation, the existing PCs are unable to access shares on PC4. What is the likely cause?
• The switch to switch connection must be configured as an access port to permit access to VLAN 10 on S3.
• The new PC is on a different subnet so Fa0/2 on S3 must be configured as a trunk port.
• PC4 must use the same subnet as the other HR VLAN PCs.
• A single VLAN cannot span multiple switches.

22. What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?
• Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode.
• Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
• Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
• Enter the no shutdown in interface configuration mode to return it to the default configuration and then configure the port for VLAN 3.

CCNA 3 – Chapter 2

1. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
• The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
• The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
• The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
• The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

2. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
• No collisions will occur on this link.
• Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
• The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
• The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

3. Refer to the exhibit. What action does SW1 take on a frame sent from PC_A to PC_C if the MAC address table of SW1 is empty?
• SW1 drops the frame.
• SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, except port Fa0/1.
• SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, except Fa0/23 and Fa0/1.
• SW1 uses the CDP protocol to synchronize the MAC tables on both switches and then forwards the frame to all ports on SW2.

4. When a switch receives a frame and the source MAC address is not found in the switching table, what action will be taken by the switch to process the incoming frame?
• The switch will request that the sending node resend the frame.
• The switch will issue an ARP request to confirm that the source exists.
• The switch will map the source MAC address to the port on which it was received.
• The switch ends an acknowledgement frame to the source MAC of this incoming frame.

5. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will capture a copy of the frame when workstation A sends a unicast packet to workstation C?
• workstation C
• workstations B and C
• workstations A, B, C, and the interfaces of the router
• workstations B, C, D, E, F, and interfaces of the router

6. Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are depicted in the network?
• 1
• 2
• 4
• 6
• 7
• 8

7. Which two statements about Layer 2 Ethernet switches are true? (Choose two.)
• Layer 2 switches prevent broadcasts.
• Layer 2 switches have multiple collision domains.
• Layer 2 switches route traffic between different networks.
• Layer 2 switches decrease the number of broadcast domains.
• Layer 2 switches can send traffic based on the destination MAC address.

8. Which command line interface (CLI) mode allows users to configure switch parameters, such as the hostname and password?
• user EXEC mode
• privileged EXEC mode
• global configuration mode
• interface configuration mode

9. A network administrator uses the CLI to enter a command that requires several parameters. The switch responds with “% Incomplete command”. The administrator cannot remember the missing parameters. What can the administrator do to get the parameter information? append ?
• to the last parameter
• append a space and then ? to the last parameter
• use Ctrl-P to show a parameter list.
• use the Tab key to show which options are available

10. Where is the startup configuration stored?
• DRAM
• NVRAM
• ROM
• startup-config.text

11. If a network administrator enters these commands in global configuration mode on a switch, what will be the result?
• Switch1(config-line)# line console 0
• Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
• Switch1(config-line)# login

12. to secure the console port with the password “cisco” to deny access to the console port by specifying 0 lines are available to gain access to line configuration mode by supplying the required password to configure the privilege exec password that will be used for remote access problem?
• incorrect vty lines configured
• incompatible Secure Shell version
• incorrect default gateway address
• vty lines that are configured to allow only Telnet

13. Which two statements are true about EXEC mode passwords? (Choose two.)
• The enable secret password command stores the configured password in plain text.
• The enable secret password command provides better security than the enable password.
• The enable password and enable secret password protect access to privileged EXEC mode.
• The service password-encryption command is required to encrypt the enable secret password. Best practices require both the enable password and enable secret password to be configured and used simultaneously.

14. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows partial output of the show running-config command. The enable password on this switch is “cisco.” What can be determined from the output shown?
• The enable password is encrypted by default.
• An MD5 hashing algorithm was used on all encrypted passwords.
• Any configured line mode passwords will be encrypted in this configuration.
• This line represents most secure privileged EXEC mode password possible.

15. Which statement is true about the command banner login “Authorized personnel Only” issued on a switch?
• The command is entered in privileged EXEC mode.
• The command will cause the message Authorized personnel Only to display before a user logs in.
• The command will generate the error message % Ambiguous command: “banner motd” ” to be displayed.
• The command will cause the message End with the character “%” to be displayed after the command is entered into the switch.

16. What are two ways to make a switch less vulnerable to attacks like MAC address flooding, CDP attacks, and Telnet attacks? (Choose two.)
• Enable CDP on the switch.
• Change passwords regularly.
• Turn off unnecessary services.
• Enable the HTTP server on the switch.
• Use the enable password rather than the enable secret password.

17. Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)
• The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP.
• Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.
• The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports.
• After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses.
• If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.

19. Refer to the exhibit. What happens when Host 1 attempts to send data?
• Frames from Host 1 cause the interface to shut down.
• Frames from Host 1 are dropped and no log message is sent.
• Frames from Host 1 create a MAC address entry in the running-config.
• Frames from Host 1 will remove all MAC address entries in the address table.

20. What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?
• The SSH client on the switch is enabled.
• Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.
• A username/password combination is no longer needed to establish a secure remote connection to the switch.
• The switch requires remote connections via proprietary client software.

21. Refer to the exhibit. A user on PC1 experiences a delay when accessing applications on the server. What two statements about latency are true? (Choose two.)
• Each hop in the path adds delay to the overall latency.
• Placing the bits on the wire at PC1 is propagation delay.
• Total latency depends solely on the number of devices in the path.
• The NIC delay at points A and F contributes to the overall latency.
• The time it takes for an electrical signal to transit the segment from point C to point D is the cause for the propagation delay.
• Because optimized routing algorithms are faster than switching algorithms, routers R1 and R2 are expected to add less latency than switches SW1 and SW2.

22. Refer to the exhibit. Which hosts will receive a broadcast frame sent from Host A?
• hosts A and B
• hosts D and E
• hosts A, B, and C
• hosts A, B, C, D, and E
• hosts A, B, C, D, E, and F

CCNA 3 – Chapter 1

1. A network technician is asked to examine an existing switched network. Following this examination, the technician makes recommendations for adding new switches where needed and replacing existing equipment that hampers performance. The technician is given a budget and asked to proceed. Which two pieces of information would be helpful in determining necessary port density for new switches? (Choose two.)
• forwarding rate
• traffic flow analysis
• expected future growth
• number of required core connections
• number of hubs that are needed in the access layer to increase performance

2. Configuring communication between devices on different VLANs requires the use of which layer of the OSI model?
• Layer 1
• Layer 3
• Layer 4
• Layer 5

3. What is the likely impact of moving a conventional company architecture to a completely converged network?
• Local analog phone service can be completely outsourced to cost-effective providers.
• The Ethernet VLAN structure is less complex.
• A shared infrastructure is created resulting in a single network to manage.
• QoS issues are greatly reduced.
• There is less bandwidth competition between voice and video streams.

4. Which hierarchical design model layer controls the flow of network traffic using policies and delineates broadcast domains by performing routing functions between virtual LANs (VLANs)?
• application
• access
• distribution
• network
• core

5. A network administrator is selecting a switch that will operate at the network core. Which three features should the switch support for optimum network performance and reliability? (Choose three.)
• port security
• security policies
• 10 Gigabit Ethernet
• quality of service (QoS)
• hot-swappable hardware
• Power over Ethernet (PoE)

6. Which three features are commonly supported at the distribution layer of the Cisco hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
• security policies
• Power over Ethernet
• switch port security
• quality of service
• Layer 3 functionality
• end user access to network

7. Which two features are supported at all three levels of the Cisco three-layer hierarchical model? (Choose two.)
• Power over Ethernet
• load balancing across redundant trunk links
• redundant components
• Quality of Service
• link aggregation

8. Which two characteristics are associated with enterprise level switches? (Choose two.)
• low port density
• high forwarding rate
• high latency level
• support link aggregation
• predefined number of ports

9. Link aggregation should be implemented at which layer of the hierarchical network?
• core only
• distribution and core
• access and distribution
• access, distribution, and core

10. For organizations that are implementing a voice over IP solution, what functionality should be enabled at all three layers of the hierarchical network?
• Power over Ethernet
• quality of service
• switch port security
• inter-VLAN routing

11. Which layer of the hierarchical design model provides a means of connecting devices to the network and controlling which devices are allowed to communicate on the network?
• application
• access
• distribution
• network
• core

12. At which heirarchical layer are switches normally not required to process all ports at wire speed?
• core layer
• distribution layer
• access layer
• entry layer

13. Which layer of the OSI model does an access layer LAN switch use to make a forwarding decision?
• Layer 1
• Layer 2
• Layer 3
• Layer 4

14. Refer to the exhibit. What characteristic of hierarchical network designs is exhibited by having SW3 connected to both SW1 and Sw2?
• scalability
• security
• redundancy
• maintainability

15. Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is refered to as the high-speed backbone of the internetwork, where high availability and redundancy are critical?
• access layer
• core layer
• data-link layer
• distribution layer
• network layer
• physical layer

16. What statement best describes a modular switch?
• a slim-line chassis
• allows interconnection of switches on redundant backplane
• defined physical characteristics
• flexible characteristics

17. A technician is attempting to explain Cisco StackWise technology to a client that is setting up three stackable switches. Which explanation accurately describes StackWise technology?
• StackWise technology allows up to eight ports to be bound together to increase available bandwidth.
• StackWise technology allows the switch to deliver power to end devices by using existing Ethernet cabling.
• StackWise technology allows the switch capabilities and ports to be expanded by the addition of line cards.
• StackWise technology allows up to nine switches to be interconnected via the use of a fully redundant backplane.

18. Which hierarchical design characteristic would be recommended at both the core and distribution layers to protect the network in the case of a route failure?
• PoE
• redundancy
• aggregation
• access lists

19. Which feature supports higher throughput in switched networks by combining multiple switch ports?
• convergence
• redundant links
• link aggregation
• network diameter

20. Refer to the exhibit. Beginning with HR servers and workstations, a network engineer is designing a new security structure for the network. Which set of • • policies adheres to the hierarchical network model design principles?
• Implement Layer 3 switching on S1 to reduce the packet processing load on D1 and D2. Install all security processing on S1 to reduce network traffic load.
• Configure port security options on S1. Use Layer 3 access control features on D1 and D2 to limit access to the HR servers to just the HR subnet.
• Move all HR assets out of the data center and connect them to S1. Use Layer 3 security functions on S1 to deny all traffic into and out of S1.
• Perform all port access and Layer 3 security functions on C1.