CCNA 2 – Module 6

June 9, 2009

What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)
reduced routing table size
reduced routing update traffic

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?
255.255.255.252

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is summarizing the two groups of routes on router R1 shown in the exhibit. Which summarization will work for all the subnets?
192.168.0.0/21

Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
32-bit address
subnet mask

Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?
the shortage of IP addresses

What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?
utilize multiple subnet masks in the same IP address space

Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will be applied if Router A sends a RIPv1 update for the network 172.16.1.0 to Router B?
24

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to minimize the number of entries in Router1’s routing table. What should the administrator implement on the network?
CIDR

A router has a summary route to network 192.168.32.0/20 installed in its routing table. What range of networks are summarized by this route?
192.168.32.0 – 192.168.47.0/24

A network administrator is tasked with dividing up a class C network among the QA, Sales, and Administration departments. The QA department is made up of 10 people, the Sales is made up of 28 people, and the Administration has 6. Which two subnets masks adequately address the QA and Sales departments? (Choose two.)
255.255.255.224 for Sales
255.255.255.240 for QA

In the network shown in the graphic, three bits were borrowed from the host portion of a Class C address. How many valid host addresses will be unused on the three point-to-point links combined if VLSM is not used?
84

A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to provide for the number of host addresses required on Router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?
/27

An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?
192.1.1.224/28

Which three interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)
OSPF
RIP v2
EIGRP

Refer to the exhibit. The number of required host addresses for each subnet in a network is listed in the exhibit. This number includes the host address requirements for all router ports and hosts on that subnet. After all device and router port address assignments are determined, what will be the total number of unused host addresses available?
29

Refer to the exhibit. In the network that is shown, the router interfaces are assigned the first address in each subnet. Which IP address would be usable for a host on one of the LANs in this network?
192.168.2.130/25

Refer to the exhibit. Which address is a broadcast address for one of the subnets that are shown in the exhibit?
192.168.4.15/29

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to create two subnetworks from 10.0.0.0/8 for a router running RIPv2. The Admin subnet requires 120 hosts and the Sales subnet requires 58 hosts. The network administrator assigned 10.0.1.128/25 to the Admin subnet. The Sales subnet is given 10.0.1.192/26. What will be the result of this addressing scheme?
Because RIPv2 does not support VLSM, the subnet masks will not be allowed.
The subnets overlap and will be rejected by the router.

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician enters the static route in R1 needed to reach network 10.1.1.0/24. A ping from the S0/0/0 interface on R1 to host B fails. The technician begins testing the network and has the following results:
1. pings from R1 to the S0/0/0 interface on R2….successful
2. pings from R1 to the Fa0/0 interface on R2….successful
3. pings from host B to hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 network….successful
4. pings from host B to the Fa0/0 interface on R2….successful
5. pings from R2 to host B….successful.
The default gateway on host B is not correctly set.

What is a supernet?
a summarization of classful addresses


CCNA 2 – Module 5

June 9, 2009

CCNA 2 – Module 5

Refer to the exhibit. The network that is shown is running RIPv1. The 192.168.10.0/24 network was recently added and will only contain end users. What command or set of commands should be entered on Router1 to prevent RIPv1 updates from being sent to the end user devices on the new network while still allowing this new network to be advertised to other routers?

Router1(config-router)# passive-interface fastethernet 0/0

The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command.
R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
What is the value of the routing metric?
3

Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?
RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.


Refer to the exhibit. The Ethernet interface on Router2 goes down and the administrator notices that the route is still in the Router1 routing table. How much longer will Router1 keep the down network in its routing table before marking it as possibly down?
155 seconds

Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running RIPv1. What command was entered into Router1 to configure the gateway of last resort?
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1

What are three characteristics of the RIPv1 routing protocol? (Choose three.)
uses hop count as a metric
considers a metric of 16 as infinity
calculates metrics using the Bellman Ford algorithm

Which of the following would be the correct command sequence to enable RIP on Router B for all connected networks?
RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 220.17.29.0

What is the default update period in seconds for the RIP routing protocol?
30

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output of router B?
The default-information originate command has been entered on A.

Refer to the exhibit. A network consists of multiple routers. What can be verified when the show ip protocols command is issued on one of the routers in the network?
routing protocol configuration in use for IP on this router

Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured with valid interface addresses in the indicated networks and are running RIPv1. The network is converged. Which routes are present in the routing tables?
All routers have all /30 routes. Routers A and E also have some of the /24 routes in their routing table.

Which two statements are true regarding the characteristics of RIPv1? (Choose two).
It is a distance vector routing protocol.
The data portion of a RIP message is encapsulated into a UDP segment.

Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process?
RouterB(config)# no router rip

Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the exhibit are running RIP v1. The network administrator issues the show ip route command on router A. What routes would appear in the routing table output if the network is converged? (Choose two).
R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1]
R 10.10.1.0/24 [120/2]

Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
debug ip rip

Refer to the output from the show ip route command. What can be concluded from the output of this router command?
There are two equal cost paths to network 1.0.0.0.

Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running the RIPv1 protocol. The network administrator configures the command network 10.1.0.0 on Router1. What network will Router1 advertise to Router2?
10.0.0.0/8

Refer to the exhibit. Pings between the serial interfaces of the routers are successful. Hosts on each LAN can ping the Fa0/0 interface of the router to which they are directly connected through the switch. However, pings between hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 networks are unsuccessful. What is a likely cause of this problem?
RIP is configured incorrectly on R1.

What will happen if an interface IP address is entered for the address portion of the network command in a RIPv1 configuration instead of a network address?
All interfaces in the same classful network as the configured address will be included in the RIPv1 routing process.

Refer to the exhibit. All routers that are shown are running the RIP routing protocol. All unknown IP traffic must be forwarded to the ISP. What router or set of routers are recommended to have both a default route and the default-information originate command issued to implement this forwarding policy?
only the gateway route


CCNA 2 – Module 4

June 9, 2009

Which event will cause a triggered update?

a route is installed in the routing table

Three routers running a distance-vector routing protocol lost all power, including the battery backups. When the routers reload, what will happen?

They will send updates that include only directly connected routes to their directly connected neighbors.

What does the RIP holddown timer do?

instructs routers to ignore updates, for a specified time or event, about possible inaccessible routes


Which two statements are true regarding the function of the RIPv1 routing updates? (Choose two).

updates are broadcast at regular intervals broadcasts are sent to 255.255.255.255

Which of the following statements are correct about RIP?

will send out an update if there is a failure of a link

Which two statements describe EIGRP? (Choose two.)

EIGRP sends triggered updates whenever there is a change in topology that influences the routing information. EIGRP sends a partial routing table update, which includes just routes that have been changed.

Which statement is true regarding cisco’s RIP_JITTER variable?

It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by subtracting a random length of time ranging from 0% to 15% of the specified interval time from the next routing update interval.

What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)

RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA. Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB.

Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?

Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.

The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?

route poisoning

What is the purpose of the TTL field in the IP header?

limits the time or hops that a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded

Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose three.)

routing loops inconsistent traffic forwarding inconsistent routing table entries

Refer to the exhibit. The routers in this network are running RIP. Router A has not received an update from Router B in over three minutes. How will Router A respond?

The Invalid timer will mark the route as unusable if an update has not been received in 180 seconds.

A network administrator is evaluating RIP versus EIGRP for a new network. The network will be sensitive to congestion and must respond quickly to topology changes. What are two good reasons to choose EIGRP instead of RIP in this case? (Choose two.)

EIGRP only updates affected neighbors. EIGRP updates are partial.

Refer to the exhibit. What path will packets from the 192.168.1.0/24 network travel to reach the 10.0.0.0/8 network if RIP is the active routing protocol?

The path will be router A -> router D -> router E.

Which three routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three).

RIPv1 EIGRP RIPv2

What is a routing loop?

a condition where a packet is constantly transmitted within a series of routers without ever reaching its intended destination

Which two conditions are most likely to cause a routing loop? (Choose two.)

inconsistent routing tables incorrectly configured static routes

What metric does the RIP routing protocol consider to be infinity?

16

What does a router running RIP do first with a new route that is received from an advertisement?

adjusts the metric for the new route to show the added distance for the route

Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are using RIP, how many rounds of updates will occur before all routers know all networks?
3


CCNA 2 – Module 3

June 9, 2009

Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)
Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.


Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?
R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.

Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
sends subnet mask information in routing updates
allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology


Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?
show ip route


Which statement is true regarding routing protocols?
EIGRP uses DUAL to calculate the shortest path and can be configured to do unequal cost load balancing.


Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)
the network is using a hub and spoke topology
the network is using a flat design


What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.


Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.


Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
shortest-path first calculations


Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.


Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged
The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.


Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)
EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.
OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.


Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two).
increased security
the administrator maintains control over routing


The following line of code is displayed in a routing table:
R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0
What can be concluded from this output?

The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing protocol configured for the same destination network.


What will be the result of the following commands?
ORL(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
ORL(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
ORL(config-if)# no shutdown

A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of “C”.


An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?
The administrative distance of this route is 1.


Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1?
The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.


The following line of code is present in the routing table:
O 10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1
What does the number 129 indicate in this output?

The cost for this link has a value of 129.


A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process?
OSPF can be used between the routers.


Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?
3

A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?
The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.


CCNA 2 – Module 2

June 9, 2009

Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
platform
holdtime
local interface



Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?
In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.



The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following:
Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.
What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?
No clock rate has been set.


A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?
administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0


Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)
A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2



Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1


Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0


What address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.4.0/24?
172.16.0.0/21


Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route.


What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).
a modem
a CSU/DSU device


A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?
encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface


Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?
Interface IP address


Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.


Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)
It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP.
It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.


Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
ping
traceroute
show ip route


What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
The route is removed from the table.


The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
192.1.1.0/25


Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?
Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.


A router has one static route to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)
The destination network no longer exists.
A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.


Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?
The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate.


Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?
WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1


Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0
B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0


CCNA 2 – Module 1

June 9, 2009

If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?
The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.


Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem?
The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.


Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command.
An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.9.1 will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface.



Refer to the exhibit. The frame shown in the exhibit was received by the router. The router interfaces are operational. How will the router process this frame? (Choose two.)
The router will change the frame type to one supported by the WAN link before forwarding the frame.
The frame was received on the Fa0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the S0/0/0 interface.


Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
VTY interface
console interface
privileged EXEC mode


Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)
ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.


Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.
Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.
The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.


Which are functions of a router? (Choose three.)
packet switching
segmentation of broadcast domains
selection of best path based on logical addressing



Refer to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network? (Choose two.)
If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.


The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown

Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000


Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration of a router?
The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.


Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234



What is the outcome of entering these commands?
R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# password check123
R1(config-line)# login
sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet


Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration


What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network? (Choose three.)
decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header
uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface


The network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their FastEthernet ports. What cable should the network administrator use?
cross-over
Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing? (Choose two.)
Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.
Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.



What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of the show version command? (Choose three.)
the last restart method
the configuration register settings
the location from where the IOS loaded


Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection? (Choose two.)
1
4


From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose two.)
TFTP server
Flash memory



A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?
Router1# copy running-config startup-config


What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE

What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
the Layer 2 source and destination address


CCNA1 FINAL (New1)

June 9, 2009

1. Refer to the exhibit. Host B attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of the San Francisco router. The packet inside the captured frame has the source IP address 10.10.1.2, and the destination IP address is 10.31.1.20. What is the destination MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?
- 0060.7320.D632
- 0060.7320.D631
- 0040.8517.44C3
- 0009.B2E4.EE03
- 0010.C2B4.3421

2. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
- It monitors the media for presence of a data signal.
- After detecting a collision, hosts can resume transmission after a random timer has expired.
- A jam signal is used to ensure that all hosts are aware that a collision has occurred.

- Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
- Data is transmitted only when the data signal is present.
- It uses a token system to avoid collisions.

3. Refer to the exhibit. The PC, the routing table of which is displayed, is configured correctly. To which network device or interface does the IP address 192.168.1.254 belong?
- PC
- switch
- router interface fa 0/0
- router interface fa 0/1

4. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to access the Internet. Which combination of a Layer 2 address and a Layer 3 address will enable this access from host A?
- Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE83 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130
- Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE82 Default gateway: 172.16.9.2
- Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 172.16.1.1
- Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130

5. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between hosts X and Y is restricted to the local network. What is the reason for this?
- The gateway addresses are broadcast addresses.
- Host Y is assigned a multicast address.
- Host X and host Y belong to different networks.
- Host X is assigned a network address.

6. What is the result of using the clock rate 56000 command at the serial interface of the router?
- The interface is configured as a DCE device.
- The interface timers are cleared.
- The FastEthernet interface is made to emulate a serial interface by assigning it a timing signal.
- The IP address for the serial interface is configured.

7. Which three addresses belong to the category of public IP addresses? (Choose three.)
- 127.0.0.1
- 196.1.105.6
- 132.11.9.99

- 10.0.0.1
- 172.16.9.10
- 46.1.1.97

8. Which three statements are true about transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
- TCP and UDP manage communication between multiple applications.
- TCP retransmits the packets for which the acknowledgment is not received.
- TCP acknowledges received data.
- UDP exchanges frames between the nodes of the network.
- TCP has no mechanism to acknowledge transmission errors.
- UDP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?
- star
- ring
- point-to-point
- multi-access

10. Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?
- It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.
- It is stored in NVRAM.
- It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.
- It is automatically saved when the router reboots.

11. Refer to the exhibit. Host C is able to ping 127.0.0.1 successfully, but is unable to communicate with hosts A and B in the organization. What is the likely cause of the problem?
- Hosts A and B are not on the same subnet as host C.
- The IP addresses on the router serial interfaces are wrong.
- The subnet mask on host C is improperly configured.
- The FastEthernet interface fa0/0 of router 1 is wrongly configured.

12. A host is transmitting a video over the network. How does the transport layer allow this host to use multiple applications to transmit other data at the same time as the video transmission?
- It uses error control mechanisms.
- It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions.
- It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses.
- It uses multiple port numbers.

13. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access PC2. To troubleshoot this problem, the technician needs to confirm that the next hop interface is operational. Which default gateway address should the technician ping from PC1 to confirm this?
- 10.0.0.254
- 192.168.0.249
- 192.168.0.250
- 10.0.1.254

14. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and Cable 2 are wired for specific physical layer requirements. Which three segments use Cable 2? (Choose three.)
- Segment 1
- Segment 2
- Segment 3
- Segment 4
- Segment 5
- Segment 6

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)
- Three networks are needed.
- Two logical address ranges are required.
- A single broadcast domain is present.

- Three collision domains are present.
- Four networks are needed.

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the IP configuration that is displayed? (Choose three.)
- The assigned address is a private address.
- The PC cannot communicate with the DNS server.
- The network can have 126 hosts.
- The prefix of the computer address is /26.
- The IP address is routable on the Internet.
- The IP address is a multicast address.

17. Which password restricts Telnet access to the router?
- enable
- enable secret
- console
- VTY

18. Refer to the exhibit. To create the initial configuration, a network technician connected host A to the router using the connection that is shown. Which statement is true about this connection?
- It terminates at the Ethernet port of the router.
- It provides out-of-band console access.
- It terminates at the serial interface of the router.
- It requires a Telnet client on host A to access the router.

19. Which device should be used for routing a packet to a remote network?
- access switch
- DHCP server
- hub
- router

20. Refer to the exhibit. The serial interface of the router was configured with the use of the commands that are shown. The router cannot ping the router that is directly connected to interface serial 0/0/0. What should the network technician do to solve this problem?
- Configure the description at interface serial 0/0/0.
- Configure an IP address on interface serial 0/0/0.
- Remove the no shutdown command at interface serial 0/0/0
- Reboot the router.

21. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, host A is sending data segments to host B. The flow control of the segments that are being exchanged is displayed. Which two statements are true about this communication? (Choose two.)
- The initial window size is determined via the two-way handshake.
- The window size for the TCP session that is represented is initially set to 3000 bytes.
- Acknowledgment number 3001 indicates that host A will send the next segment with sequence number 3001.
- Host B expects that the next received segment number will be 3000.
- No more acknowledgments will be exchanged.

22. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to remotely access the CLI of the router from PC1 using modem 1. Which port of the router should be connected to modem 2 to enable this access?
- console
- Ethernet
- auxiliary
- serial

23. Which OSI layer uses a connection-oriented protocol to ensure reliable delivery of data?
- application layer
- presentation layer
- session layer
- transport layer

24. What are two functions of the data link layer? (Choose two.)
- It segments and reorders the data.
- It exchanges data between programs that are running on the source and destination hosts.
- It controls how data is placed onto the media.
- It generates signals to represent the bits in each frame.
- It encapsulates each packet with a header and a trailer to transfer it across the local media.

25. Refer to the exhibit. Which list refers only to end devices?
- D,E,F,G
- A,H,B,C
- A,D,E,F
- A,D,E,G

26. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram?
- 1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
- 1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
- 1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
- 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

27. Refer to the exhibit. Host B was powered off. What change will occur in the MAC table of the switch?
- The table will remain unaffected.
- The switch will remove the MAC address at Fa 0/19 immediately.
- The switch will retain the MAC address until host B is powered on again.
- The switch will rebuild the MAC table by assigning the FFFF.FFFF.FFFF address to port Fa0/19.

28. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has connected the PC to the switch using a Category 6 UTP cable. Which two statements are true about this connection? (Choose two.)
- The cable that is used is an Ethernet crossover cable.
- The transmit pin of the cable is terminated to the receive pin.
- The maximum distance between the switch and the PC can be 100 m.
- The maximum supported bandwidth is 1000 Mb/s.
- The Category 6 cable simulates a point-to-point WAN link and is unusable for this type of connection.

29. Refer to the exhibit. A host is using NAT to connect to the Internet. Which three IP addresses enable this connection? (Choose three.)
- 10.1.1.63
- 10.1.1.37
- 10.1.1.39

- 10.1.1.32
- 10.1.1.60
- 10.1.1.2

30. Refer to the exhibit. A PC is communicating with another PC on a remote network. The two networks are connected by three routers. Which action will help to identify the path between the hosts?
- Use the ipconfig command at the host.
- Use the ipconfig/all command at the destination.
- Use the tracert command at the host.
- Use the ping command at the destination.

31. An organization wants to create a subnet of the IP network 172.16.0.0. This subnet will accommodate 1000 hosts. Which subnet mask should be assigned to this network?
- 255.255.0.0
- 255.255.248.0
- 255.255.252.0
- 255.255.254.0
- 255.255.255.0
- 255.255.255.128

32. Refer to the exhibit. A host is connected to hub 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway can allow this host to function in the network?
- IP address: 172.16.31.36 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
- IP address: 172.16.31.63 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
- IP address: 172.16.31.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
- IP address: 172.16.31.32 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
- IP address: 172.16.31.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 172.16.30.1
- IP address: 172.16.31.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35

33. Refer to the exhibit. A technician uses the nslookup command on the PC and views the output that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the IP address of the primary domain name server configured at the host? (Choose two.)
- 192.168.1.99
- 192.168.2.100
- 10.10.10.32
- 192.168.1.5

- the IP address of the website resolver1.xyz.local

34. Which OSI layer offers ordered data reconstruction services?
- application layer
- network layer
- presentation layer
- session layer
- transport layer

35. Refer to the exhibit. All devices in the network use default configurations. How many logical address ranges are required in this topology?
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6

36. The network administrator wants to install a private application on a server. Which range of port numbers is normally assigned to this application to make it accessible by clients?
- 0 to 255
- 49152 to 65535
- 1024 to 4915
- 10 to 1023

37. Because of a security violation, the router password must be changed. What information can be learned from these configuration entries? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# password arj15
Router(config-line)# login

- This configuration allows users to connect by using a modem.
- Users must specify which line, 0 or 4, they wish to connect to when making a connection.
- This configuration allows users to connect to the router via the use of the telnet command.
- This configuration allows five users to make simultaneous connections to this router.

- The configured password is automatically encrypted on the router.

38. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
- Connection 1 – rollover cable Connection 2 – straight-through cable Connection 3 – crossover cable
- Connection 1 – straight-through cable Connection 2 – crossover cable Connection 3 – rollover cable
- Connection 1 – crossover cable Connection 2 – rollover cable Connection 3 – straight-through cable
- Connection 1 – crossover cable Connection 2 – straight-through cable Connection 3 – rollover cable
- Connection 1 – straight-through cable Connection 2 – straight-through cable Connection 3 – straight-through cable

39. Which two types of media are useful for connecting two devices separated by a distance of 500 meters? (Choose two.)
- 10 BASE-T
- 1000 BASE-TX
- 10 BASE-2
- 1000 BASE LX
- 1000 BASE-SX

40. Which information is used by the router to determine the path between the source and destination hosts?
- the host portion of the IP address
- the network portion of the IP address
- host default gateway address
- the MAC address

41. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the session information that is displayed? (Choose two.)
- This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
- The destination port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
- The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.
- The destination port indicates that an SMTP session has been initiated.
- The protocol is a connection-oriented protocol.

42. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is accessing multiple servers. Which combination of port number and address will uniquely identify a particular process running on a specific server?
- MAC address of the server and port number of the service
- IP address of the host and port number of the service
- MAC address of the host and port number of the service
- IP address of the server and port number of the service

43. A network technician wants to configure an IP address on a router interface by using the ip address 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 command. Which prompt should the technician see when entering this command?
- Router>
- Router(config-if)#
- Router#
- Router(config)#

44. Refer to the exhibit. Host X is unable to communicate with host Y. Which command can be run at host X to determine which intermediary device is responsible for this failure?
- telnet 192.168.1.1
- ping 192.168.1.1
- ftp 192.168.1.1
- tracert 192.168.1.1

45. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, PC1 sends a message to PC2. The frame received at PC2 is shown. What information in this frame determines the correct destination application?
- timing and synchronization bits
- destination and source physical addresses
- destination and source logical network addresses
- destination and source process numbers

46. An organization has been assigned network ID 10.10.128.0 and subnet mask 255.255.224.0. Which IP address range can be used for this organization?
- 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.160.255
- 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.255
- 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.192.255
- 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.0.159
- 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.0

47. What is the effect of using the Router# copy running-config startup-config command on a router?
- The contents of ROM will change.
- The contents of RAM will change.
- The contents of NVRAM will change.
- The contents of flash will change.

48. Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid host addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)
- 10.1.12.79/28
- 10.1.12.113/28
- 10.1.12.32/28
- 10.1.11.5/27
- 10.1.11.97/27

- 10.1.11.128/27

49. Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide Internet access to the PC. However, the PC is still unable to access the Internet. Which IP address should be changed to 209.165.201.1 to enable the PC to access the Internet?
- 192.168.1.191
- 192.168.1.101
- 192.168.1.1
- 192.168.1.254

50. Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
- It uniquely identifies each host.
- It assists in forwarding packets across internetworks.
- It uses a logical 32-bit IPv4 address.

- It is not a configurable address.
- It is a physical address.
- It identifies the host from the first part of the address.


CCNA1 FINAL (New2)

June 9, 2009

1. Which devices will create multiple collision domains in an Ethernet network? (Choose two.)

Switch

router

2. How many collision domains are shown in the diagram?

Seven

3. Refer to the exhibit. The physical documentation shows a portion of the internetwork of the ABC Company. Which segments will be free of collisions?

segments 3, 4, and 5

4. Refer to the exhibit. Which diagram represents the network topology that an administrator would prefer, and why would the administrator prefer it?

Diagram A. It will better provide available bandwidth to the hosts.

5. After an unsuccessful ping to the local router, the technician decides to investigate the router. The technician observes that the lights and fan on the router are not operational. In which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely occurring?

Physical

6. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are shown?

Three

7. Refer to the exhibit. A network associate needs to establish an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B. However, the distance between the two hosts is further than the cabling standards allow. Which two devices that operate at the physical layer of the OSI can be used to allow Host A and Host B to communicate? (Choose two.)

hub

repeater

8. Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured on Host B to allow it to communicate with the file server? (Choose three.)

a unique host IP address

the subnet mask for the LAN

the default gateway address

9. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings Host B. What can be concluded about the source and destination addresses contained in the communication sent by Router R5 when it forwards the ping out the Ethernet interface to Host B? (Choose two.)

source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666

destination IP address: 192.168.10.134

10. What is the correct number of usable subnetworks and hosts for the IP network address 192.168.35.0 subnetted with a /28 mask?

14 networks / 14 hosts

11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?

255.255.255.252

12. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?

IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17

13. Two peer hosts are exchanging data using TFTP. During the current session, a datagram fails to arrive at the destination. Which statement is true regarding the retransmission of the datagram?

Datagram retransmission is controlled by the application.

14. Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)

TFTP

DNS

15. When using Category 5 UTP cable, which RJ-45 pin pairs are used to exchange data between hosts on an Ethernet network?

1 and 2; 3 and 6

16. In the exhibit, the connections between the devices are labeled A, B, C, D, and E. For each connection, what is the correct UTP cable to use?

A=rollover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover

17. Which cable diagram displays the end to end pinout for a crossover cable used with Cisco devices?

Cable C

18. Which subnet masks could be used when subnetting a Class B IP address? (Choose two.)

255.255.255.240

255.255.192.0

19. Which physical network topology is easy to monitor and troubleshoot, easy to add new devices to as the network expands, but subject to complete failure when a central hub or switch ceases to work?

Star

20. A computer technician is asked to make a network cable. One end of the cable is pinned as a 568A and the other as a 568B. For what purposes can this cable be used? (Choose two.)

to connect a switch to a switch

to connect a hub to a switch

21. Refer to the exhibit. Workstation 1 pings the Fa0/1 interface of Router 1. Which MAC address will workstation 1 obtain during the ARP request for this communication?

00-08-A3-B6-CE-02

22. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a network after subnetting the network number 192.168.0.0/28. Workstation 1 is not able to communicate with Workstation 2. What is the cause of this loss in communications?

Workstation 1 is not on the same network that the Router 1 LAN interface is on.

23. Which network device creates the highest amount of latency?

Router

24. An Ethernet host receives a frame, calculates the FCS, and compares the calculated FCS to the FCS received in the frame. The host finds that the two FCS values do not match. What action will be taken by the host?

The host discards the frame.

25. A user initiates three simultaneous FTP connections from the local host to the same FTP server. Which OSI layer is responsible for establishing and managing these different FTP connections?

Session

26. A network administrator has installed a 24 port switch and connected 10 computers with 10/100 NICs. If the NICs are operating at 100 Mbps, how much bandwidth is available for each computer to receive data?

100 Mbps

27. Based on the graphic above, which of the following occurs as each host system comes on line in the topology?

The switch adds MAC address to the bridge table as each host sends a frame.

28. Consider the networks shown in the exhibit. Host A is sending packets to host B. Which layer of the OSI model is being used when the router is making the calculated decision to determine which interface to send the packet out?

Network

29. Why would a company install a switch instead of a hub when building or expanding a corporate network?

A switch provides more bandwidth by sending frames only out the port to which the destination device is attached. A hub sends the frame out all ports except the source port.

30. Refer to the exhibit. The hub and the switch are operating using factory default settings. Which hosts will receive the frame if host A transmits a broadcast frame?

Workstations B, C, D, E, and the router will receive the data.

31. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of Ethernet cable is represented?

straight-through cable

32. The ping command can be used to test connectivity between hosts. Which OSI model layers are verified by this test?

Layers 1, 2 and 3

33. A technician is testing connectivity between the devices using the ping command. Pings between Host B and Host A were successful. The technician could not ping the R3 address 172.16.3.2 from Host A. The technician issued ipconfig from Host A and saw the information displayed in the exhibit. What is the most likely problem?

The default gateway of Host A is incorrect.

34. Why do vendors utilize the OSI model when designing networking products?

It ensures greater compatibility and interoperability with equipment from different vendors.

35. A router determines the path to deliver a packet. What layer of the OSI model does this fact represent?

Network

36. How does a switch learn the addresses of hosts connected to its ports?

The switch reads the source MAC address on incoming frames and records it in CAM.

37. Refer to the exhibit. The connections in the exhibit are labeled A through E. Which of these indicate LAN links? (Choose two.)

link A

link E

38. A large company has a network that is constantly changing. The routing tables in the routers need to be adjusted to reflect the changes in the routing paths. What type of routing would the network administrator implement?

dynamic routing protocols

39. A network administrator has added a new switch to the network. The new switch connects to an existing switch that is already installed. Which UTP cable correctly connects the new switch to the existing switch?

crossover

40. Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician has a task of terminating CAT 5 UTP cables. The network administrator visually examined the cables the technician terminated. Some of the cables have connectors as shown in the exhibit. What should the network administrator explain to the technician about the cables?

The cable in Graphic A will produce more crosstalk.

41. Refer to the exhibit. What is the order of the TCP/IP Protocol Data Units as data is moved as indicated through the OSI model?

bits, frames, packets, segments, data

42. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of UTP cable should be used to connect Host A to Switch1?

straight-through

43. Which technologies are considered to be LAN technologies? (Choose two.)

Token Ring

Ethernet

44. Refer to the topology in the graphic. Which characteristic does this type of topology possess?

Communication continues in the event of a break in any one connection.

45. Which characteristics are common to both UDP and TCP? (Choose two.)

uses port numbers

classified as a transport layer protocol

46. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?

172.16.192.160

47. Which type of address is 192.168.170.112/28?

subnetwork address

48. What is the decimal representation of the binary number 11111000?

248

49. What are important characteristics to consider when purchasing a network interface card? (Choose two.)

media used on the network system

bus used on the computer

50. Which of the following statements are correct about CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)

It is a media access method used in LANs.

When a device needs to transmit, it checks to see if the media is available.

Only one device can successfully transmit at a time.


CCNA1 FINAL 100%

June 9, 2009
1  A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?

Use the ipconfig /all command at the host�s command prompt.
X Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.
Use the traceroute command at the command prompt to identify any failures on the path to the     gateway.
Use FTP to check for connectivity to remote sites.
Download a troubleshooting tool from the PC manufacturer's website.

2  Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?

X A, B, D, G
A, B, E, F
C, D, G, I
G, H, I, J


3  Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?

X only computer D
only computer A and computer D
only computer B, computer C, and computer D
all computers

4  Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created?

vty
aux
console
X enable secret
enable password

5  Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

X TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
X TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
X TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.

6  Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)

10 Base-T
10 Base-2
10 Base-5
X 100 Base-FX
100 Base TX
X 1000 Base LX

7  Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?

127.0.0.1
192.168.64.196
X 192.168.254.1
192.168.254.9
192.168.254.254

8  Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients. Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram.

1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
1.MDA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MUA 7.POP 8.MDA
X 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

9  Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?

X address translation
DHCP services
ftpd
web server

10  Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B? What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?

issue the ip address command on interface FastEthernet 0/0
X issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1
issue the clock rate command on interface Serial 0/0/0
issue the description command on interface Serial 0/0/1

11  Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.)

X 172.16.4.63 /26
172.16.4.129 /26
X 172.16.4.191 /26
172.16.4.51 /27
X 172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.221 /27

12  What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)

Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy.
X A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.
The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision.
X All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.
X After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.

13  In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?

Flash
X NVRAM
RAM
ROM

14  A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?

access point
host
hub
X router
switch

15  Which OSI layer protocol does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?

application
presentation
session
X transport

16  Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two.)

Router(config)# line vty 0 3
Router(config-line)# password c13c0
Router(config-line)# login

The entries specify three Telnet lines for remote access.
X The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.
The entries set the console and Telnet password to "c13c0".
Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete.
X Access will be permitted for Telnet using "c13c0" as the password.

17  Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ?

Switch-6J>
X Switch-6J#
Switch-6J(config)#
Switch-6J(config-if)#
Switch-6J(config-line)#

18  Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?

172.16.128.0 255.255.255.224
172.16.128.0 255.255.0.0
X 172.16.128.0 255.255.192.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.255.192

19  When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?

when the interface is functioning as a DTE device
when the interface timers have been cleared
when the connected DTE device is shut down
X when the interface is functioning as a DCE device

20  When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what are usually used to acknowledge the data receipt and request the retransmission of missing data?

connectionless acknowledgements
X upper-layer connection-oriented protocols
Network layer IP protocols
Transport layer UDP protocols

21  A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most secure?

console
enable
X enable secret
VTY

22  Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on RouterA?

a FTP client
a telnet client
X a terminal emulation program
a web browser

23  Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1. Which two statements are true about the application layer protocol that is used to make this connection? (Choose two.)

The data is encrypted.
X The connection type is called a VTY session.
A server process is running on PC1.
A GET request is sent to RouterB.
X The application name is the same for the service, protocol, and client.

24  The Layer 4 header contains which type of information to aid in the delivery of data?

X service port number
host logical address
device physical address
virtual connection identifier

25  Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two.)

X A single broadcast domain is present
Two logical address ranges are required.
Three broadcast domains are shown.
Four networks are needed.
X Five collision domains exist.

26  Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?

IP address: 192.168.100.19; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.16.1.2
X IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17
IP address: 192.168.100.21; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18
IP address: 192.168.100.22; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 10.1.1.5
IP address: 192.168.100.30; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.1.1
IP address: 192.168.100.31; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18

27  Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.)

X segment1
segment2
X segment3
X segment4
segment5

28  What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three.)

uses a flat structure
prevent broadcasts
X heirarchical
X uniquely identifies each host
48 bits in length
X contains a network portion

29  Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet?

The packet will be dropped.
The packet will be forwarded via FastEthernet 0/0.
X The packet will be forwarded to the destination host.
The packet will be forwarded to the 192.168.1.3 next-hop address.

30  Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two.)

This is a server response.
The UDP protocol is being used.
X The destination port indicates a Telnet session.
X The return segment will contain a source port of 23.
The next session originated from the client of this session will use the source port number 13358.

31  Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?

00-08-a3-b6-ce-46
X 198.133.219.25:80

http://www.cisco.com

C 198.133.219.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0

32  During the encapsulation process, which identifiers are added at the transport layer?

two networks routing the packets
X two applications communicating the data
two hosts at either end of the communication
two nodes on the local network exchanging the frame

33  Refer to the exhibit. A student has wired each end of a CAT 5e cable as shown. What is the result? (Choose two.)

The cable is unusable and must be rewired.
The cable is suitable for use as a Gigabit Ethernet straight-through.
X The cable is suitable for use as a Fast Ethernet crossover.
The cable is suitable for use as a rollover cable.
The cable is suitable for use as a Gigabit Ethernet crossover.
X The cable is suitable for use between two 100 Mbps Auto-MDIX capable switches.

34  Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?

1
X 3
4
5
7

35  Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?

Host A was assigned a network address.
Host B was assigned a multicast address.
Host A and Host B belong to different networks.
X The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.

36  Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?

Connection 1 - rollover cable
Connection 2 - straight-through cable
Connection 3 - crossover cable

Connection 1 - crossover cable
Connection 2 - rollover cable
Connection 3 - crossover cable

Connection 1 - straight-through cable
Connection 2 - crossover cable
Connection 3 - crossover cable

X Connection 1 - straight-through cable
Connection 2 - crossover cable
Connection 3 - straight-through cable

Connection 1 - crossover cable
Connection 2 - straight-through cable
Connection 3 - crossover cable

37  Refer to the exhibit. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent?

The host's default gateway.
The host's IP address.
X The host's primary domain name server.
The IP address of the website resolver1.mooki.local.
The IP address of the host's homepage.

38  Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.)

This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
The source port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
The data is flowing from server to client.
X The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated.
X The data listed is associated with the transport layer.
The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.

39  Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)

X 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
200.100.50.0 to 200.100.25.255
150.150.0.0 to 150.150.255.255
X 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
X 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
127.16.0.0 to 127.31.255.255

40  Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.)

X physical addressing
encoding
routing
cabling
X media access control

41  Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers?

0 to 255
X 0 to 1023
1024 to 49151
49152 to 65535

42  As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0?

255.255.0.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.252.0
X 255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128

43  Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to the destination PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial packet from PC1?

X  London
Paris
Athens
Ankara
PC4

44  Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IP and MAC addresses in this communication?

Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
X Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.94

45  Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network?

star
ring
point-to-point
X multiaccess
mesh

46  Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?

IP address incorrectly entered
network cables unplugged
X subnet mask incorrectly entered
network card failure

47  Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three.)

192.168.18.38
192.168.18.48
X 192.168.18.49
X 192.168.18.52
X 192.168.18.59
192.168.18.63

48  Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)

X The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing.
X The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network.
The network of this computer can have 126 hosts.
X The prefix of the computer address is /27.
The IP address that is assigned to the computer is routable on the Internet.
The IP address that is assigned to the computer is a broadcast address.

49  Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?

leaving host A
leaving ATL
X leaving Dallas
leaving NYC

50  Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?

application
presentation
session
transport
X network

CCNA 1 Final Exam 640 – 802

June 9, 2009

This Test is 85% Correct

1. A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?

–> Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?

–> A, B, D, G

3. Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?

–> only computer D

4. Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created?

–> enable secret

5. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

–> TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.

–> TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.

–> TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.

6. Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)

–> 100 Base-FX

–> 1000 Base LX

7. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?

–> 192.168.254.1

8. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients.
Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram.

–> 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

9. Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?

–> address translation

10. Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B? What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?

–> issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1

11. Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.)

–> 172.16.4.63 /26

–> 172.16.4.191 /26

–> 172.16.4.95 /27

12. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)

–> A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.

–> All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.

–> After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.

13. In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?

–> NVRAM

14. A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?

–> router

15. Which OSI layer protocol does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?

–> transport

16. Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two.)

–> The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.
The entries set the console and Telnet password to “c13c0″.
Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete.
–> Access will be permitted for Telnet using “c13c0″ as the password.

17. Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ?

–> Switch-6J#

18. Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?

–> 172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0

19. When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?

–> when the interface is functioning as a DCE device

20. When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what are usually used to acknowledge the data receipt and request the retransmission of missing data?

–> upper-layer connection-oriented protocols

21. A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most
secure?

–> enable secret

22. Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on RouterA?

–> a terminal emulation program

23. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1. Which two statements are true about the application layer protocol that is used to make this connection? (Choose two.)

–>The connection type is called a VTY session.

–> The application name is the same for the service, protocol, and client.

24. The Layer 4 header contains which type of information to aid in the delivery of data?

–> service port number

25. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two.)

–> A single broadcast domain is present

–> Five collision domains exist.

26. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?

–> IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17

27. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data
given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.)

–> segment1

–> segment3

–> segment4

28. What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three.)

–> uses a flat structure

–> uniquely identifies each host

–> contains a network portion

29. Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet?

–> The packet will be forwarded to the destination host.

30. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two.)

–> The destination port indicates a Telnet session.

–> The return segment will contain a source port of 23.

31. Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?

–> 198.133.219.25:80

http://www.cisco.com

32. During the encapsulation process, which identifiers are added at the transport layer?

–> two applications communicating the data

33. Refer to the exhibit. A student has wired each end of a CAT 5e cable as shown. What is the result? (Choose two.)

–> The cable is suitable for use as a Fast Ethernet crossover.

–> The cable is suitable for use between two 100 Mbps Auto-MDIX capable switches.

34. Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?

–> 3

35. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?

–> The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.

36. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?

–> Connection 1 – straight-through cable , Connection 2 – crossover cable , Connection 3 – straight-through cable

37. Refer to the exhibit. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent?

–> The host’s primary domain name server.

38. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.)

–> The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated.

–> The data listed is associated with the transport layer.

39. Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)

–> 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255

–> 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255

–> 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255

40. Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.)

–> physical addressing

–> media access control

41. Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers?

–> 0 to 1023

42. As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0?

–> 255.255.254.0

43. Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to the destination PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial packet from PC1?

–> Athens

44. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IP and MAC addresses in this communication?

–> Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.75

45. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network?

–> star

46. Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?

–> subnet mask incorrectly entered

47. Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three.)

–> 192.168.18.49

–> 192.168.18.52

–>192.168.18.59

48. Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)

–> The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing.

–> The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network.

–> The prefix of the computer address is /27.

49. Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?

–> leaving Dallas

50. Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?

–> transport